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Questions for Muslims

Faithofchristian

Well-Known Member
John 14:16English Standard Version (ESV)

16 And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another Helper,[a] to be with you forever,

Footnotes:

[a]John 14:16 Or Advocate, or Counselor; also 14:26; 15:26; 16:7

What does he mean by another? He's likening himself to a comforter. <<<< Jesus pbuh was human, a human Prophet.

And remember he said, test the spirits to see if they are of God, as many PROPHETS, (spirits) would come.

You have not provided a single piece of advice that the Comforter heard from God and passed onto the Christians, remember Jesus pbuh said, He had MANY things to say, but they were unable to bear it and would have to wait for the 'Comforter'.

Is the Holy Spirit mute?

Muhammad pbuh came and praised Jesus pbuh. He explained the importance and status of Jesus pbuh as being one very close and beloved to Allah swt. The two Prophets came with the same message.


I do not go by your ESV Corrupted book.

I use KJV 1611 bible only.
Comforter is Holy Spirit of Almighty God. Not human.
To test the spirit's of the prophets to see if they are false prophets.

Do you know what spirit is, Give answer

You have no knowledge of Christian bible.
You can not understand what Christian bible say.

I have showed you many time as well as others on here have, but you just don't understand knowledge of Christian bible.
 
It's also found in the second post on the following forum thread:

http://www.pe****ta.org/forums/forumid6/1826.html

and quoted in the following book, written by Muslims, so I doubt it will carry any weight given your bias:

Can you explain why it is 'biased' if one doesn't uncritically accept Islamic apologetics as being objective fact?

The link between Muhammad and the Paraclete is based on a philological error:

"Immediately after his quotation of the Gospel of John, Ibn Ishạ̄ q explains to his readers that al-Mnhṃ nā in “Aramaic” (al-siryāniyya)27 and means “Muhạ mmad”. He also notes that in Greek (al-rūmiyya) the word is al-Baraqlītụs (البرقليطس=παράκλητος). While the equivalence of mnhṃ nʾ and paráklētosis relatively straightforward, the iden- tification of these words with Muhạmmad is certainly less so. Unlike mnhṃnʾin Aramaic and paráklētos in Greek, “Muhạ mmad” does not mean “comforter” in Arabic, but rather “praised one”... the connection between the Gospel of John’s Paraclete and Q. 61: 6 is tendentious. “Ahṃad” and “Muhạmmad” on the one hand and paráklētos/mnhṃ nʾ/ Menahẹm on the other do not carry even approximately similar meanings. The words are simply incommensurate. " Muḥammad, Menaḥem, and the Paraclete - Sean Anthony

Look at what your source claims:


Of special interest always is what the name for Muhammad was in his mother tongue, Palestinian Aramaic. For this we have to look to the Hebrew and Aramaic scriptures. According to the present day Aramaic scriptures, the word for Muhammad would read "Paraqleyta" or "Paraklytos" in Greek and "Menahem" in Hebrew! In the ancient Aramaic scriptures, before these changes, it read "Ahmad," then Munahammana" which is the Aramaic/Syriac rendering for the name "Muhammad." These are names, not simply words, and they mean "Comforter" or "Muhammad" in Arabic.

2.Why was Ahmad changed to "Munahammana" and then to "Paraqleyta?"

Your source claims the translation happened from Aramaic to Greek, and this is the crux of the argument.

However:

"the earliest testimonia to the Gospels in CPA [Christian Palestinian Aramaic], in particular the Codex Climaci Rescriptus (CCR) (c. sixth century CE), lack any attempt to provide a vernacular translation of the Greek paráklētos and, instead, merely transcribe the Greek original as prqlytʾ̣, as do all Syriac versions of the Gospels.56 Why this discrepancy?

I would like to suggest that Ibn Ishạ̄ q offers us a key testimony to a sea change in CPA translations of John’s Gospel, wherein Christians translating John’s Gospel into CPA began rendering Paraclete as mnhṃ nʾ, probably from the seventh century onwards."


Interpreting paraclete as 'comforter' rather than advocate reflects a later exegetical tradition "the CPA translation of paráklētos as mnhṃ nʾ emerges simultaneously with the rise in messianic expectations among Palestinian Jewry of Late Antiquity.

A central theme to the Jewish messianism of Palestine in Late Antiquity is the expectation of the advent of a Messiah named Menahẹm. The name is highly significant. Menahẹm means “comforter”. The name is thus roughly the Hebrew and Jewish Aramaic equivalent of paráklētos and mnhṃ nʾ of the Paraclete discourse."



Who was I showed you elsewhere Ishmaelites are considered brethren of the Israelites, and as most Jewish Scholars will testify Judaism and Islam have endured the test of time, and both are descendants of Abraham's covenant with God.

That was the thread where you claimed that these genetic profiles showed Jews were 'very close brethren' with Saudis, and that the Jews and the Greek Cypriots were 'not closely related' :D

Screen_Shot_2017-07-14_at_23.55.27.png
Screen_Shot_2017-07-14_at_23.55.47.png


Plenty of non Muslims can see the link between the 'Praised One' and Muhammad pbuh:

Less so the advocate though ;)
 

Muslim-UK

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Questions for Muslims.
Explain what is spirit. Give answer
According to your Bible, it's threefold:

1- Soul residing in Human body
2 - Human Prophet
3 - A Spirit that God sends to Christians to teach them everything he hears from God, and so far has been 100% mute for almost 2,000 years.
 

Muslim-UK

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Can you explain why it is 'biased' if one doesn't uncritically accept Islamic apologetics as being objective fact?

The link between Muhammad and the Paraclete is based on a philological error:

"Immediately after his quotation of the Gospel of John, Ibn Ishạ̄ q explains to his readers that al-Mnhṃ nā in “Aramaic” (al-siryāniyya)27 and means “Muhạ mmad”. He also notes that in Greek (al-rūmiyya) the word is al-Baraqlītụs (البرقليطس=παράκλητος). While the equivalence of mnhṃ nʾ and paráklētosis relatively straightforward, the iden- tification of these words with Muhạmmad is certainly less so. Unlike mnhṃnʾin Aramaic and paráklētos in Greek, “Muhạ mmad” does not mean “comforter” in Arabic, but rather “praised one”... the connection between the Gospel of John’s Paraclete and Q. 61: 6 is tendentious. “Ahṃad” and “Muhạmmad” on the one hand and paráklētos/mnhṃ nʾ/ Menahẹm on the other do not carry even approximately similar meanings. The words are simply incommensurate. " Muḥammad, Menaḥem, and the Paraclete - Sean Anthony

Look at what your source claims:




Your source claims the translation happened from Aramaic to Greek, and this is the crux of the argument.

However:

"the earliest testimonia to the Gospels in CPA [Christian Palestinian Aramaic], in particular the Codex Climaci Rescriptus (CCR) (c. sixth century CE), lack any attempt to provide a vernacular translation of the Greek paráklētos and, instead, merely transcribe the Greek original as prqlytʾ̣, as do all Syriac versions of the Gospels.56 Why this discrepancy?

I would like to suggest that Ibn Ishạ̄ q offers us a key testimony to a sea change in CPA translations of John’s Gospel, wherein Christians translating John’s Gospel into CPA began rendering Paraclete as mnhṃ nʾ, probably from the seventh century onwards."


Interpreting paraclete as 'comforter' rather than advocate reflects a later exegetical tradition "the CPA translation of paráklētos as mnhṃ nʾ emerges simultaneously with the rise in messianic expectations among Palestinian Jewry of Late Antiquity.

A central theme to the Jewish messianism of Palestine in Late Antiquity is the expectation of the advent of a Messiah named Menahẹm. The name is highly significant. Menahẹm means “comforter”. The name is thus roughly the Hebrew and Jewish Aramaic equivalent of paráklētos and mnhṃ nʾ of the Paraclete discourse."


The simple solution to see if they used advocate, comforter, spirit, ahmad or muhammad pbuh would be to examine the First Century manuscripts of John's Gospel. I doubt Christian revert, Ibn Ishaq had access to the differing Greek Manuscripts and their various uses of the words of interest. What we do know is many Christians recognised Muhammad pbuh as being the Prophet mentioned in their Scriptures and reverted to Islam; this is a fact.
 

Faithofchristian

Well-Known Member
According to your Bible, it's threefold:

1- Soul residing in Human body
2 - Human Prophet
3 - A Spirit that God sends to Christians to teach them everything he hears from God, and so far has been 100% mute for almost 2,000 years.


That's according to what you say.

According to Christian bible it's not threefold.
You still do not know Christian bible.

There is only one Holy Spirit of the Almighty God. Not Three. Only 1.

For 2000 years the Holy Spirit of the Almighty God has been in the leading Christians to the Truth. The Comforter is the Holy Spirit of the Almighty God. to help lead Christians to Truth.

Let me ask you this, Who are the true Christians and who are the false Christians.

Who told you there is three,
There is only one Holy Spirit of Almighty God.
 

Faithofchristian

Well-Known Member

The simple solution to see if they used advocate, comforter, spirit, ahmad or muhammad pbuh would be to examine the First Century manuscripts of John's Gospel. I doubt Christian revert, Ibn Ishaq had access to the differing Greek Manuscripts and their various uses of the words of interest. What we do know is many Christians recognised Muhammad pbuh as being the Prophet mentioned in their Scriptures and reverted to Islam; this is a fact.

And what we do know, many Muslims recognised Muhammad is false prophet, and reverted to Christianity.

I know Muslims in my church that converted to Christian.

Christians over thousand years handed down manuscripts of Gospel of John and many others Manuscripts.

In many Christian churches have manuscripts of John,Matthew, Mark, Luke,
And many other Manuscripts.
 
The simple solution to see if they used advocate, comforter, spirit, ahmad or muhammad pbuh would be to examine the First Century manuscripts of John's Gospel. I doubt Christian revert, Ibn Ishaq had access to the differing Greek Manuscripts and their various uses of the words of interest.

They used paráklētos = advocate.

Comforter as a supplementary meaning seems to relate to later exegetical traditions. Info is in article I linked to.

It also says Ibn Ishaq was basing his exegesis on traditions in Christian Palestinian Aramaic, not Greek.

What we do know is many Christians recognised Muhammad pbuh as being the Prophet mentioned in their Scriptures and reverted to Islam; this is a fact.

Some Jews/Christians saw Muhammad as a prophet, true enough. The degree to which they had to 'convert' to join the proto-Islamic movement is uncertain either way.

The mining of Christian texts for 'predictions' only starts appearing in the historical record mid 8th C (it is possible they started earlier, but there is no evidence for it). To say they 'recognised Muhammad pbuh as being the Prophet mentioned in their Scriptures' is pure speculation.

It does appear to be a time of much messianic and eschatological fervour though in among certain Jewish/Christian groups though which is probably a more likely reason than scholarly interpretations of scriptural minutiae imo.
 

Muslim-UK

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
That's according to what you say.

According to Christian bible it's not threefold.
You still do not know Christian bible.
I don't know the Bible? Do humans have a soul or not?

There is only one Holy Spirit of the Almighty God. Not Three. Only 1.
You misunderstood me:

Holy Spirit can be a Prophet, a Spirit sent from God, (In Islam, a Angel of God) and a Spirit is also called a soul that all humans have. You have explained the Holy Spirit to be ....


For 2000 years the Holy Spirit of the Almighty God has been in the leading Christians to the Truth. The Comforter is the Holy Spirit of the Almighty God. to help lead Christians to Truth.

John 14:16English Standard Version (ESV)

16 And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another Helper,[a] to be with you forever,

Footnotes:

[a]John 14:16 Or Advocate, or Counselor; also 14:26; 15:26; 16:7

Jesus pbuh said another would come, another like who? Yet you insist it's not a human Prophet....

John 16:12-15King James Version (KJV)
12 I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now.

13 Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come.

14 He shall glorify me: for he shall receive of mine, and shall shew it unto you.

15 All things that the Father hath are mine: therefore said I, that he shall take of mine, and shall shew it unto you.

He not it. He shall speak. He shall tell you many things.

What things has he spoken, please list them and you can wrap this argument up in your favour.


Let me ask you this, Who are the true Christians and who are the false Christians.
The Ebionites and others who lasted until the 7th Century were the true Christians. This group were led by James, the first Bishop of Jerusalem, and Companion who knew Prophet Jesus pbuh the best, after all they both grew up together in the same house.

The Ebionites: True followers of Jesus who converted to Islam
 
The Ebionites and others who lasted until the 7th Century were the true Christians. This group were led by James, the first Bishop of Jerusalem, and Companion who knew Prophet Jesus pbuh the best, after all they both grew up together in the same house.

The Ebionites: True followers of Jesus who converted to Islam

That they lasted until the 7th C is debatable, and your source's claim that they 'converted to Islam en masse' is very debatable. Do you have any references to original source material for this point?

Ebionites also seemed to reject that Jesus was born of a virgin:

"According to Tertullian, Ebion asserted that “Jesus is a mere man and only of the seed of David, that means not also the son of God.”120 Here it is not just virgin birth that was denied (though Tertullian knew the Ebionites to reject that too), but also the status of Jesus as the son of God" P. Crone - Jewish Christianity and the Quran pt. 1

 

Faithofchristian

Well-Known Member
I don't know the Bible? Do humans have a soul or not?

You misunderstood me:

Holy Spirit can be a Prophet, a Spirit sent from God, (In Islam, a Angel of God) and a Spirit is also called a soul that all humans have. You have explained the Holy Spirit to be ....




John 14:16English Standard Version (ESV)

16 And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another Helper,[a] to be with you forever,

Footnotes:

[a]John 14:16 Or Advocate, or Counselor; also 14:26; 15:26; 16:7

Jesus pbuh said another would come, another like who? Yet you insist it's not a human Prophet....

John 16:12-15King James Version (KJV)
12 I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now.

13 Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come.

14 He shall glorify me: for he shall receive of mine, and shall shew it unto you.

15 All things that the Father hath are mine: therefore said I, that he shall take of mine, and shall shew it unto you.

He not it. He shall speak. He shall tell you many things.

What things has he spoken, please list them and you can wrap this argument up in your favour.


The Ebionites and others who lasted until the 7th Century were the true Christians. This group were led by James, the first Bishop of Jerusalem, and Companion who knew Prophet Jesus pbuh the best, after all they both grew up together in the same house.

The Ebionites: True followers of Jesus who converted to Islam

That's where you are wrong.

The Holy Spirit is not nor can be a prophet.

The Holy Spirit is Almighty God,

A prophet is not the Almighty God.

Your getting the soul and spirit of humans mix up with the Spirit of Almighty God.

You have the soul,spirit of humans.

You have Holy Spirit is the Almighty God

They are not the same spirit.

Is human Almighty God. No human can not be Almighty God.

soul, spirit of human is not same Spirit of Almighty God.

soul > is human
spirit > is human
Holy Spirit > is Almighty God
 

Faithofchristian

Well-Known Member
They used paráklētos = advocate.

Comforter as a supplementary meaning seems to relate to later exegetical traditions. Info is in article I linked to.

It also says Ibn Ishaq was basing his exegesis on traditions in Christian Palestinian Aramaic, not Greek.



Some Jews/Christians saw Muhammad as a prophet, true enough. The degree to which they had to 'convert' to join the proto-Islamic movement is uncertain either way.

The mining of Christian texts for 'predictions' only starts appearing in the historical record mid 8th C (it is possible they started earlier, but there is no evidence for it). To say they 'recognised Muhammad pbuh as being the Prophet mentioned in their Scriptures' is pure speculation.

It does appear to be a time of much messianic and eschatological fervour though in among certain Jewish/Christian groups though which is probably a more likely reason than scholarly interpretations of scriptural minutiae imo.

What you stated here is true.

Muslims get the soul,spirit of humans mix up with the Holy Spirit of God. They are totally different.

I as a Christian, When Christ Jesus spoke about false Christ's and false prophets shall rise. Then Christ Jesus said but take you heed, I have fortold you all things. Mark 13:22-23

This means that Christ Jesus is not going to send no more Prophet's, this way people will know a false prophet, all because Jesus said that he has fortold all things.

Why would Jesus need to send a prophet, when he has already foretold all things.
You see, this is how to recognized a false prophet.
If you told someone every thing they needed to know and then you warn them how someone may come saying I will tell you how everything is going to come down.

Are they going to believe you or believe someone else. You just fortold them that this would happen. But they went right after that false prophet, that you warned them about.
 

Muslim-UK

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
That's where you are wrong.

The Holy Spirit is not nor can be a prophet.

The Holy Spirit is Almighty God,

A prophet is not the Almighty God.

Your getting the soul and spirit of humans mix up with the Spirit of Almighty God.

You have the soul,spirit of humans.

You have Holy Spirit is the Almighty God

They are not the same spirit.

Is human Almighty God. No human can not be Almighty God.

soul, spirit of human is not same Spirit of Almighty God.

soul > is human
spirit > is human
Holy Spirit > is Almighty God

Just list all the things the Comforter, Advocate, Spirit of Truth told Christians. He was meant to say many things, so just list a few.

If Jesus pbuh said only false Prophets would arise, then why tell his Disciples to test them?
Why not simply say, "There will be NO more Prophets after me"?

“Beware of false prophets, who come to you in sheep’s clothing, but inwardly they are ravenous wolves” (Matthew 7:15).

One such ravenous wolf was identified in the First Century, and went on to write most of the NT.

“Whoever … breaks one of the least of these commandments, and teaches men so, shall be called the least [by those] in the kingdom of heaven” (Matthew 5:19).
 

Faithofchristian

Well-Known Member
Just list all the things the Comforter, Advocate, Spirit of Truth told Christians. He was meant to say many things, so just list a few.

If Jesus pbuh said only false Prophets would arise, then why tell his Disciples to test them?
Why not simply say, "There will be NO more Prophets after me"?

“Beware of false prophets, who come to you in sheep’s clothing, but inwardly they are ravenous wolves” (Matthew 7:15).

One such ravenous wolf was identified in the First Century, and went on to write most of the NT.

“Whoever … breaks one of the least of these commandments, and teaches men so, shall be called the least [by those] in the kingdom of heaven” (Matthew 5:19).

Why Jesus tell disciples to test them, because many deceivers would come.

Why Jesus did not say simple, there will not more prophets after me.
You know nothing about Christian bible, Jesus did say, there be no more Prophet's after him.

Thats why Jesus said false prophets would come, because there be no more True Prophet's to come after him.
no more Prophet's, only false prophets will come to deceive.

You say, one such ravenous wolf was identified in first century, and went on to write most of the NT.
Much like prophet in cave in desert write q'uran, one such ravenous wolf was identified by Jesus, false prophet in the desert.
Matthew 24:26
 

Muslim-UK

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Why Jesus tell disciples to test them, because many deceivers would come.
Right so you have to test the true Prophet from the false ones.

Why Jesus did not say simple, there will not more prophets after me.
You know nothing about Christian bible, Jesus did say, there be no more Prophet's after him.
Where, show me.

Thats why Jesus said false prophets would come, because there be no more True Prophet's to come after him.
no more Prophet's, only false prophets will come to deceive.
He said false 'Christs' would arise, people coming in his name to deceive people. You already pointed out Muhammad pbuh did not come in the name of Christ.


You say, one such ravenous wolf was identified in first century, and went on to write most of the NT.
Much like prophet in cave in desert write q'uran, one such ravenous wolf was identified by Jesus, false prophet in the desert.
Matthew 24:26
For a start the one who wrote most of the NT came from the Desert, on the rd to Damascus, and he even claimed to have spoken to God from a 'locked' room, (prison cell).

God promised to send a Prophet to the Gentiles in Deut 42, that Prophet would come from the desert from amongst the people of Kedar. You know who Kedar is right?
 

MohammadPali

Active Member
The reason why the prophet mohammad peace be upon him married a young woman was for 2 reasons. Its the solidify this bond with her father, and for her to teach the next generation of muslims. She wasn't just his wife, she was a teacher. What better way to have to teach people for the next generation than someone who lives with him ? Aisha may god be pleased with her had better knowledge than most of the companions.
 

Notanumber

A Free Man
The reason why the prophet mohammad peace be upon him married a young woman was for 2 reasons. Its the solidify this bond with her father, and for her to teach the next generation of muslims. She wasn't just his wife, she was a teacher. What better way to have to teach people for the next generation than someone who lives with him ? Aisha may god be pleased with her had better knowledge than most of the companions.

If Aisha was such a marvellous woman and had better knowledge than most of the companions why does Islam despise women?
 

Muslim-UK

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
If Aisha was such a marvellous woman and had better knowledge than most of the companions why does Islam despise women?
If that was true, how do you explain it is the fastest growing Religion in the WEST, especially amongst young, educated women who have often studied to degree level.

Like Lauren Booth, why ARE modern British career women converting to Islam? | Daily Mail Online
Given most of these women have grown up in a Christian household, they likely found Islam's stance on women liberating....

No original sin because of the woman.
No curse of child labour pains for being a woman
No silence when in the company of a man
No inequality with regards to divorce rights, inheritance etc

Islam allows a woman to work and spend her money as she pleases, allows her the ability to initiate divorce and secures inheritance. Men are responsible for housing, feeding and clothing women and children, they are also responsible for paying all the bills.


Look at the importance of women in Islam:

It is related from Talhah ibn Mu'wiyah as-Salam who said:

I came to the Prophet and said, "O Messenger of Allah, I want to perform Jihad in the way of Allah. He asked, "Is your mother alive?" I replied, "Yes." The Prophet then said: "Cling to her feet, because paradise is there." (at-Tabarin).

Shaykh Nidhaam Sakkijihaa comments:

Cling to her feet means to submit yourself to her, be close to her, protect her, serve her because in this is Paradise and with her satisfaction you will enjoy the good blessings of Allah. (Sakkijihaa, Honoring the Parents, p. 52)

Your forefathers didn't even dedicate a single page to any woman in the NT. Nothing about Mary, may God be pleased with her. Whereas the Qur'an dedicates a whole CHAPTER to the family of Jesus pbuh and praises Mary, ra throughout it.
 
If that was true, how do you explain it is the fastest growing Religion in the WEST, especially amongst young, educated women who have often studied to degree level.

Any evidence that there are more 'young educated women who have often studied to degree level' converting to Islam than 'young, educated women who have often studied to degree level' leaving Islam?

Given that probably no more than 0.0001% of the population in the UK convert to Islam in any given year, 0.01% of Muslims leaving their faith would result in a clear net drop of converts.

Which do you think is more likely?
 
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