No. See, the way it works is if you're responsible, then you're at fault.
One's responsibility does not diminish that of another.
Sorry, but no. Again, you keep refusing to acknowledge the major differences between a sexual encounter and a financial matter.
They are acts of a different nature, but the nature of consent does not change.
I agree with the sentiment... the logical implications of your statement do make one want to do that.
Yes, which is why I called it circular.
There is some basic misunderstanding you have with the idea of argument basis then.
The statements:
'His honesty was under guarantee of law'
'Unfortunately for her, he lied'
and
'Unfortunately for him, he had to face said law'
Are not circularly based on each other in any conceivable way.
I have my doubts that she was counting on the law beforehand. I'd wager she only found out about that after the fact, and then used it because she felt wronged.
That is possible.
That indicates to me that you do, in fact, have a problem. That is an entirely unreasonable view of the situation.
We've disagreed on a great number of things, why stop now
Sure, in certain matters. Not in this case, though. That idea is just crazy.
" "
Maybe that's because they're different situations, and you still refuse to acknowledge the differences.
No, I've acknowledged, several times I believe, but at least once quite clearly, that they are different situations. It is you who refuse to look upon the similarities, namely the concept of consent.
No. This is not a matter of opinion, but of fact. If you cannot gain one thing through deception, and you can another, the first is more protected than the second.
First, you're already assuming sex is more important. That's your value, not necessarily a general one, and there's no reason for it to be a general one.
I've admitted that it is a subjective value judgment... are you disagreeing with it?
Second, the main thing is when talking about money, you're giving your money to someone for something, a car, a house, an investment to be given back later, etc. If you don't get that car or house or investment money in return, then you have a legal problem.
Indeed.
In the case of sex, you each agree to have sex.
Indeed.
If you consent to have sex with a man or woman, you're consenting to have sex with that particular person. If you wouldn't want to have sex with them because they're not Jewish, you should be careful to make sure that they are not Jewish (which would mean doing more than asking them whether or not they're Jewish).
Here is where the differences blend together. When you consent to "X" and get "Y", you have not gotten what you consented to. If you consent to buy a car and get a cactus, that is not valid consent for them to obtain your money. If you consent to sex with a single person who desires a long relationship and you have sex with a married person who is looking for a one night stand, that is not valid consent for sex. Consent by its nature cannot be freely given when based on deception.
Anyway, the point is with money, if you don't get your return, then you have a case. In the case of sex, you get your return, and that is sex.
But you did not get the return you sought, because the sex you got was with an identity that does not exist, and you consented to sex with that identity.
You're welcome to make that claim again, but it's not going to make it true.
It is not the claim, but the facts that make it true.
Considering I did pose that scenario, I would have expected it to, since you were giving that in response to my scenario.
Considering it was I who proposed the scenario, and that is not the scenario, neither of us should have expected it to be talking about that.
The scenario was first proposed in post #107, which is one of mine:
Mister Emu said:
I did not consent to you spending my money on a car, I consented to it being used in the investment I agreed to.
you followed up in #109:
Mball said:
It depends. Who am I? Am I your investment broker? That's a much different situation than the OP. Am I your friend with no professional ties? Then it's your fault for trusting me.
#110:
Mister Emu said:
Either way, friend or investment broker, you are a criminal if we agree to invest my money and you use it to buy a car.
#115:
Mball said:
A criminal? According to what laws?
#117
Mister Emu said:
#118
Mball said:
Thanks for the vague, unhelpful. I'll try again, though. A criminal? Under what laws?
#120
Mister Emu said:
I honestly cannot believe you demand a specific statute saying fraud is illegal... but alright.
Kentucky law:
KRS 514.040
(1) A person is guilty of theft by deception when the person obtains the property or services of another by deception with the intent to deprive the person thereof.
Whether they be friend or investment broker, if they deceive you into giving them your money, or property, for one purpose(such as an investment) and they then go and use it for personal gain(such as buying a car) they are criminals. If the value of the theft was more than $500 they are felons.
#123
Mball said:
That doesn't actually say what you want it to. That doesn't cover giving a friend money to pay his mortgage payment, and then him using it to buy crack instead. That's why I was asking for specifics. I thought you might have something that you assumed supported your point, but didn't do it in reality.
The scenario was investment money used for personal gain. And yes, it says what I think it does. If you lie to me and say my money is going to an investment and you use it for personal gain, you are a criminal whether you are a broker or my "friend"(I use quotations, because clearly a real friend would not do that)
Apparently, it's not I who has misunderstood. I asked for your reasoning as to why my scenarios would be criminals, and you gave me this. Then, when I reiterate my scenarios to which it doesn't apply, you claim it was never meant to apply to them.
Considering your scenario never appeared before post #123, and that all along we had been discussing quite another scenario, one that I had proposed, no. It is you who has misunderstood.