Woodrow LI
IB Ambassador
okay...there's a picture I want to show you:
all the countries in blue are the states where there is a written civil and penal law (the codes).
Let's take France. In France a Muslim can never apply the Islamic sharia, not even for private matters (contracts, marriages, divorces, inheritance). Because there is already a civil law, written in the Code Civil, and French Muslims must regulate their private relationships according to these laws. so these deals and acts are legal and juridically relevant (legally recognized).
Of course they can make private deals by applying the sharia law. It's their right to do that.
But these deals, contracts, marriages, etc...do not have juridic value before the French law.
Got it?
I am law school graduate, so I do know how the law works in countries like France, Italy, Spain.
Differently than UK; USA; etc
Thank you for the explanation. Being an American I can not understand how Civil laws can be State codified. The closest ti codification I see in the US are the 10-20 US states that specifically forbid the use of Islamic Civil law No need in me derailing the thread and go into a long post.
I will now acknowledge European law is Different from US law.