siti
Well-Known Member
No you haven't, you have not cited a single verse of scripture that is unequivocally referring to any event that cannot be interpreted as having happened in the 1st century. In regard to the resurrection (to keep on topic) - you referred to a comment by Paul in his second letter to Timothy where he indicates that "the resurrection" had not yet happened - but we all know that this letter was written before the destruction of the Temple in 70 AD - so even if the preterist interpretation (which really refers to the Book of Revelation, but by extension other Bible "prophecies" that are interpreted as features of the "last days") is true, that statement by Paul would have been true when it was written anyway - and therefore irrelevant to the discussion.I have clearly established the weakness of the preterist position.
Yes but they do not usually interpret the same passage of scripture literally one minute and allegorically the next - as you have done with the Olivet discourse.Any scholar or student of the bible reads some scripture literally and some allegorically.
It is entirely relevant because the entire reason the Baha'i faith needs to deny the physical resurrection and subsequent ascension of Jesus with the accompanying outpouring of Holy Spirit and the establishment of the Christian Church as the culmination of the "cause of Christ" is to permit a much later spiritual interpretation with Baha'u'llah as the Messiah returning to complete Christ's mission. So please let's not deflect any more and honestly appraise the whole idea that is being promoted.There's no problem establishing Baha'u'llah as the returned Messiah other than being completely off the topic of this thread. Why not start a thread to investigate Baha'u'llah's Messianic claims if that's what you wish to talk about.
No you haven't. You have not, for example, answered the question about how Paul's denial that the resurrection had already happened by the middle of the 1st century proves that it still had not happened some 1800 years later...you have not answered how Jesus' numerous references to "this generation" in passages that are very clearly addressing his 1st century audience specifically can be reconciled with an obviously analogous "this generation" that would not appear for almost 2000 years...and in any case you quoted me out of context because I actually said that you have not answered any of the questions without trying to have it both ways - literal and allegorical, preterist and futurist - at the same time - which is exactly what you are doing.I've answered all your questions
For example, you insist that the resurrection is symbolic - which means it could be (have been) at any time - and at the same time you insist that the restoration of the Jews to Israel is to have a literal fulfillment - despite heaps of Biblical references to "the Jerusalem above" etc. that make it clear that this was, in the interpretation of many Bible writers at least, definitely symbolic. You surely can't deny that a symbolic, spiritual "resurrection" and the symbolic "restoration" of a spiritual "nation" of true worshipers of God are linked? Isn't the most likely interpretation of all this - if we take the Bible as a "whole" - that they are actually talking about the same thing from two different viewpoints - the "resurrection" if we are looking at the raising of the spirituality of individuals and the "restoration" if we are looking at the spiritual elevation of a collective group of people? And is it not really rather obvious that the Bible writers intended this restoration - this symbolic resurrection to spiritual life - this conversion from Pharisaic legalism to the "glorious liberty of the children of God" (Romans 8:21) - to be understood to be, at the very least, well under way, before they purportedly finished their writings in the 1st century and to expect its culmination to be something that would "shortly come to pass"? (Revelation 1:1).
Is there any convincing scripture in the entire New Testament that suggests (as "Daniel" had a couple of centuries or so earlier) that "yet the vision is for many days"? In fact is it not rather the case that the writers of the NT had Jesus refer to "Daniel's" prophecies precisely because they were convinced that the "latter days" of "Daniel" had, in fact, already arrived (Daniel 10:14) and that the promised "Kingdom of God" was, as they had also had Jesus claim, already "at hand" (Mark 1:15).
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