Mister_T said:
Can anyone give me a logical reason not to have sex with someone you love?
Of course. Prospective unwanted pregnancy and transmissible STD's. Logically, both are to be avoided when possible. Fortuanately, they are avoidable when effective barrier methods are employed. Unfortunately...lust (unbridled passion, etc.) is not a manifestation borne of logic, but of reptillain (basal) emotion. And yet, emotionally secure consenting partners can manage to utilize logic before indulging lust at it's basest levels.
"If two people are in love with each other what is so "evil" about sharing intemacy with each other."
"Evil" is an estimation/qualification of human behavior delineated/defined by many differing philosophical/ideological/creedal aspects/perspectives. Each of us is accountable to our own estimations of what specifically constitutes either "good" or "evil".
Marriage is just a man made ritual. Love is eternal.
The first observation is accurate, the second is but wishful thinking. Love is fickle, impatient, and demanding. Love is not (directly) subject to logic, nor does logic dictate what may or may not prove to be an everlasting "love". Most couples cite being "in love" as primary rationalized justification for marriage, yet nearly half (in the U.S.) have experienced legal marriage dissolvment (marital divorce) of some sort. Consentual sex is only a minute (yet, admittedly, still important) part of any lasting and loving relationship.
I can't find anywhere in the Bible where having sex with someone you love is labled as adultery and/or sexual immorality.
Perhaps the Bible is poor authority in qualified personal estimations of morality. It's just a
book, after all. There are
lots of insightful books out there - regarding human sexuality, personal morality, and situational ethics - of equal/valid consideration to imbibe and ponder accordingly as to consequential aspects of "pre-marital sex".
In the book Song of Songs, two lovers are talking sexually about each other and NOT ONCE does the phrase husband or wife appear in that book. Yet it's apart of the Bible. I have yet to see anyone provide a specific command from the Bible or a decent argument to back up the church's argument that this is wrong. The only rebuttals I've heard are "it just is" and "it is implied" (which even if it was, it is done very poorley) Your thoughts.
My thoughts are that Judeo/Christian faith makes (or insists that) Biblical teachings (to be/as) "true (or "truth")". As faith varies, so do interpretations of Scripture (foremost to suit one's own established sensibilities).
Your milage may vary.