Hey, lookie:
I'll admit, there's a basis for the social norms established about incest, due to the observed increase in chance for birth defects. However,
incest itself is not responsible for birth defects; it's if both the parents possibly carry a gene that is known to cause birth defects. If there is family history of a certain defect, then the children of that family can possibly carry the gene for it, but it may be recessive. In that case (at least in our society), it would be considered irresponsible for them to have a child together because of the risk that that child would inherit the recessive gene from both parents.
However, couples who are not related to each other can also carry the same recessive genes. Why is it considered 'less wrong' for them to have a child?
On the other hand, what if a family was known to have 'perfect' genes? As in, their family has no history of birth defects or defective genes. Since their offspring would also have 'perfect' genes, where is the risk for birth defects or the passing of defective genes? Why would be any different than non-related couples that have good genes producing a child?
Incest taboo - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
The irony . . .
Seriously, I'd like to see your responses to this, Primordial Annihilator.