How do you justify your "Double-Standard" in accusing Trinitarians of mistranslating the Bible when the NWT adds the word "a" in their translation of John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was "a" god. The Greek reads:
Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.
En archē ēn ho Lógos, kaì ho Lógos ēn pròs tòn Theón, kaì Theòs ēn ho Lógos.
In beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the God, and God was the Word.
The NASB reads: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. There is no difference in meaning whatsoever in stating "God was the Word" or "The Word was God". Therefore in order for JW's to be able to promote their Arian-antitrinitarianism they must create a mistranslation of the Bible which denies the Deity of Christ in this verse by adding to God's Word in a way which "contradicts" His truth. Both P66 and P75 in English read: In beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the God, and God was the Word.
P66 dates of c.175 or c.125-150 A.D. (John 1:1-6:11, 6:35b-14:26,29-30; 15:2-26; 16:2-4; 16:6-7; 16:10-20:20; 20:22-23; 20:25-21:9; 21:12,17 (fragments of John 19:16). John 1:1 reads: Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.
P75 175-200 A.D., or 175-225 A.D. (most of Luke and John. John 1:1-11:45; 11:48-57; 12:3-13:1; 13:8-9; 14:8-15; part of 14:16; 14:17-29; 15:7-8). John 1:1 reads: Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.
These manuscripts predate your erroneous accusation of mistranslation during the early era of the Roman Catholic Church. "When the Western half of the Roman Empire collapsed in 476, the popes took on the title that had previously belonged to the Roman emperors—Pontifex Maximus. Pope Gregory I, ruling from 590–604, is usually considered the first bishop to truly wield papal authority."