I did you the courtesy of clicking on your link, which is far more than you deserve.
You first list the verse in Revelation, the ONLY verse that actually mentions the Lord's Day. It does not identify which day of the week it is.
Then you go on to cite a whole bunch of other verses, NONE of which mention the Lord's Day.
So you utterly failed to meet your burden of proof.
Sorry dear friend but I prefer what the scriptures teach and the scriptures disagree with you here. As posted earlier, the bible does tell us what day the Lord's day is. As already proven in the scriptures including the Torah and in the Greek meaning of the scriptures used in Revelation 1:10 the Greek words κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ (the Lord's day) means the day that the Lord' claims ownership over and includes both in authority and ownership. In scripture this is clearly demonstrated in the Torah and directly in the New testament scriptures.
If you read my OP, the challenge is to prove Sunday or the first day of the week (biblical time) is the Lords day? You cannot because there is no scripture that makes this connection. Yet it is simply a lie to claim that "the Lords day" cannot be shown to be the seventh day of the week (biblical time) when the OP already demonstrates this with scripture that you simply choose to ignore..
As demonstrated though the scriptures earlier.. The term "the Lord's day" was used by some in the early Church as a reference to Sunday worship in celebration of the resurrection of Jesus. It comes from a scripture in the bible found in Revelation 1
- REVELATION 1:10 10, I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet
The Greek words used for the day that JOHN was in the Spirit of is the for Lord's day are
- REVELATION 1:10 εγενομην εν πνευματι εν τη κυριακη ημερα και ηκουσα οπισω μου φωνην μεγαλην ως σαλπιγγος
The word "κυριακη" (translit. "kuriake") is an Adjective - Dative - Singular - Feminine. This means it is being used as a 'possessive' as
ownership or belonging to ("of", see 1 Corinthians 11:20, "the Lord's supper"), which means the "day" in context belongs to "the Lord". It is literally "the Lord's (belonging to) day". This means, that the "day" in context is uniquely "the Lord's" out of all the 7 days of the week, for the day under consideration is that which exists within the week, as a day which repeats weekly. This is extremely important, as those who incorrectly assume it to mean "the first [day] of the week" in lieu of Jesus' resurrection, cannot get a weekly occurrence out of a one-time event, in fulfillment of typology of the Firstfruit/Wavesheaf in Leviticus 23:9-14, as made known in 1 Corinthians 15:20,23
The problem here however is that there is not a single scripture that references Sunday
or the first day of the week (bible names for the days of the week) to being "the Lords day" in scripture.
According to the scripture "the Lords day" however can be referenced to "the Sabbath day" of Gods' 4th commandment found in Exodus 20:8-11.
Letting the scriptures answer this question
WHAT DAY IS THE LORD'S DAY ACCORDING TO THE SCRIPTURES?
- FOR THE SON OF MAN IS LORD EVEN OF THE SABBATH DAY (Matthew 12:8)
This then promotes a bit of a dilemma for the Church as there is not a single scripture in all of the bible that days "the Lords day" from Revelation 1:10 is Sunday. Yet there is many scriptures referencing "the Lords day" or Gods' specific claims to ownership of any particular day to the Sabbath day that he blessed and set aside as a holy day of rest for a memorial of creation (see Genesis 2:1-3) and made one of Gods' 10 commandments (Exodus 20:8-11).
God's "ownership" of the Sabbath day or "Lord's day is also repeated elsewhere as "MY" (ownership of the day as in the Greek used in REVELATION 1:10 κυριακη). Other scriptures in the bible pointing to "the Lords day" as being the Sabbath day...
- MATTHEW 12:8 FOR THE SON OF MAN IS LORD EVEN OF THE SABBATH DAY. (the Sabbath day is Lord's day)
- LEVITICUS 19:30 You shall keep MY SABBATHS, (God's claim to ownership of the Sabbath day) and reverence my sanctuary: I am the LORD.
- EZEKIEL 20:12 Moreover also I gave them MY SABBATHS, (God's claim to ownership of the Sabbath day) to be a sign between me and them, that they might know that I am the LORD that sanctify them.
- EZEKIEL 20:20 20, And keep holy MY SABBATHS (God's claim to ownership of the Sabbath day); and they shall be a sign between me and you, that ye may know that I am the LORD your God.
- ISAIAH 58:13 13, If thou turn away thy foot from the sabbath, from doing thy pleasure ON MY HOLY DAY; and call the sabbath a delight, the holy of the LORD, honorable; and shalt honor him, not doing thine own ways, nor finding thine own pleasure, nor speaking thine own words:
κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ used in Revelations 1:10 is in reference to the Lord's ownership of the day. It does not say that this day is in reference to μιά των σαββάτων which means the FIRST DAY OF THE WEEK (bible time).
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Your challenge here in this OP is to prove from the scriptures alone that the Lord's DAY is in reference to the First day of the week. If you cannot all you have is a teaching and tradition of men that is not supported in the scriptures. There is not a single scripture in all the bible that refers to Sunday as being "the Lords day". So as proven above it is untruthful to make the claim you cannot prove that "the Lords day" or the Lords ownership of a day in the bible cannot be proven to be the Sabbath day. The scriptures and the Koine Greek disagree with you here.
If you disagree, you are welcome to prove how all the scriptures and Greek provided above in disagreement with you does not support a claim that the Sabbath is "the Lord's day". You refuse to address the above because you cannot argue against it. Just be honest. Receive Gods correction and be blessed. If you disagree, prove why you disagree. Sorry I am not leaving you anything to hide behind here.
Take Care.