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The prophets tell us that THE SCRIBES HAD CHANGED THE GOD'S LAW

Sleeppy

Fatalist. Christian. Pacifist.
Which "deceit" are you referring to? Please explain.



Varies. The more orthodox tend not to like this approach, but I do know of some who do. Within more liberal circles, my view is not at all unusual. Since we do not have a creed we must adhere to, it's pretty much left up to the individual as far as belief is concerned.

Because it requires interpretation, and doesn't necessarily distinguish between historical accuracy and moral perception. Some of it may be accurate, while some of it is also fabricated using moral perception/bias, including witness accounts. There isn't much that doesn't deceive; perception and interpretation become of utmost importance.
 

metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
Because it requires interpretation, and doesn't necessarily distinguish between historical accuracy and moral perception. Some of it may be accurate, while some of it is also fabricated using moral perception/bias, including witness accounts. There isn't much that doesn't deceive; perception and interpretation become of utmost importance.

I don't know how much may or may not be written to deceive, but with my approach it really matters not. I read it, interpret it (sometimes getting the perspective from others who may know much more than I), and then judge as to whether it's usable-- to me.
 

Shermana

Heretic
It is you who does not understand what Jesus meant. That's an idiomatic way of saying "This is the SUMMARY of the entire law".

You do realize it wasn't written in English, right? Even then, in English, that's still plainly a "Summary".

Why do you think Jesus tells the leper he heals to "make a sacrifice as Moses commanded"?

Why do you suppose the Female disciples obeyed the Sabbath even after he was crucified? Did they never get the memo that they weren't supposed to all that time?

Why did Jesus even celebrate the Passover feast?
 

Sleeppy

Fatalist. Christian. Pacifist.
As of yet you haven't told me anything. You answer a question with a question.

Matthew 6:6-13

`But thou, when thou mayest pray, go into thy chamber, and having shut thy door, pray to thy Father who [is] in secret, and thy Father who is seeing in secret, shall reward thee manifestly. `And -- praying -- ye may not use vain repetitions like the nations, for they think that in their much speaking they shall be heard, be ye not therefore like to them, for your Father doth know those things that ye have need of before your asking him; thus therefore pray ye: `Our Father who [art] in the heavens! hallowed be Thy name. `Thy reign come: Thy will come to pass, as in heaven also on the earth. `Our appointed bread give us to-day. `And forgive us our debts, as also we forgive our debtors. `And mayest Thou not lead us to temptation, but deliver us from the evil, because Thine is the reign, and the power, and the glory -- to the ages. Amen.

2 Kings 2:23-24

And he goeth up thence to Beth-El, and he is going up in the way, and little youths have come out from the city, and scoff at him, and say to him, `Go up, bald-head! go up, bald-head!' And he looketh behind him, and seeth them, and declareth them vile in the name of Jehovah, and two bears come out of the forest, and rend of them forty and two lads.

Was this ordained of God, or Elijah? Even evil spirits use His given authority, both cursing and blessing. And that authority answers to God before it is used. Everything- every noun, and every verb has already been foreseen and judged/answered. There is no ignorance whatsoever attributable to God, at any time.


Is the above prayer ordained of God, or man? Everything is known before the prayer is spoken, so who benefits from speaking and hearing? And from believing? And doing? God creates no vanity.
 
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CMike

Well-Known Member
Matthew 6:6-13

`But thou, when thou mayest pray, go into thy chamber, and having shut thy door, pray to thy Father who [is] in secret, and thy Father who is seeing in secret, shall reward thee manifestly. `And -- praying -- ye may not use vain repetitions like the nations, for they think that in their much speaking they shall be heard, be ye not therefore like to them, for your Father doth know those things that ye have need of before your asking him; thus therefore pray ye: `Our Father who [art] in the heavens! hallowed be Thy name. `Thy reign come: Thy will come to pass, as in heaven also on the earth. `Our appointed bread give us to-day. `And forgive us our debts, as also we forgive our debtors. `And mayest Thou not lead us to temptation, but deliver us from the evil, because Thine is the reign, and the power, and the glory -- to the ages. Amen.

2 Kings 2:23-24

And he goeth up thence to Beth-El, and he is going up in the way, and little youths have come out from the city, and scoff at him, and say to him, `Go up, bald-head! go up, bald-head!' And he looketh behind him, and seeth them, and declareth them vile in the name of Jehovah, and two bears come out of the forest, and rend of them forty and two lads.

Was this ordained of God, or Elijah? Even evil spirits use His given authority, both cursing and blessing. And that authority answers to God before it is used. Everything- every noun, and every verb has already been foreseen and judged/answered. There is no ignorance whatsoever attributable to God, at any time.


Is the above prayer ordained of God, or man? Everything is known before the prayer is spoken, so who benefits from speaking and hearing? And from believing? And doing? God creates no vanity.

See? He's definetly jewish.
 

CMike

Well-Known Member
Not only does God answer all prayers, He answers every noun and every verb.

You then contradicted yourself.

You said prayer is only for our own understanding.

In any case this answers your question regarding Moses praying for the jews and asking G-D to go easy.

G-d answered the prayers and he relented.
 

roger1440

I do stuff
Matthew 6:6-13

`But thou, when thou mayest pray, go into thy chamber, and having shut thy door, pray to thy Father who [is] in secret, and thy Father who is seeing in secret, shall reward thee manifestly. `And -- praying -- ye may not use vain repetitions like the nations, for they think that in their much speaking they shall be heard, be ye not therefore like to them, for your Father doth know those things that ye have need of before your asking him; thus therefore pray ye: `Our Father who [art] in the heavens! hallowed be Thy name. `Thy reign come: Thy will come to pass, as in heaven also on the earth. `Our appointed bread give us to-day. `And forgive us our debts, as also we forgive our debtors. `And mayest Thou not lead us to temptation, but deliver us from the evil, because Thine is the reign, and the power, and the glory -- to the ages. Amen.

2 Kings 2:23-24

And he goeth up thence to Beth-El, and he is going up in the way, and little youths have come out from the city, and scoff at him, and say to him, `Go up, bald-head! go up, bald-head!' And he looketh behind him, and seeth them, and declareth them vile in the name of Jehovah, and two bears come out of the forest, and rend of them forty and two lads.

Was this ordained of God, or Elijah? Even evil spirits use His given authority, both cursing and blessing. And that authority answers to God before it is used. Everything- every noun, and every verb has already been foreseen and judged/answered. There is no ignorance whatsoever attributable to God, at any time.


Is the above prayer ordained of God, or man? Everything is known before the prayer is spoken, so who benefits from speaking and hearing? And from believing? And doing? God creates no vanity.
Those are your examples that “God answer all prayers”?
 

Sleeppy

Fatalist. Christian. Pacifist.
You then contradicted yourself.

You said prayer is only for our own understanding.

In any case this answers your question regarding Moses praying for the jews and asking G-D to go easy.

G-d answered the prayers and he relented.

Who elses understanding would prayer be for, except those capable of ignorance and inability?

God doesn't relent/reconsider. He Is Who He Is.

Moses, a very irritable leader, spoke many things in God's name, as did Elijah, and as do all of existence. God Himself did not answer as was written. God allowed Moses to manipulate the Israelites, as their dictator. It seems to me, Moses tempted the Israelites of evil several times. With food, water, time, stability, peace and livelihood.

3000 Israelites, not including Aaron, were slaughtered. God did not relent of anything. Moses, after he took a poll, relented because of human loyalty.
 

Brickjectivity

Veteran Member
Staff member
Premium Member
John Karter said:
Jew tried to keep himself from evil , and the Christian is called upon to go further - to do good.
That is an unfair and inaccurate statement. I've read the Bible, and Jews aren't just expected to keep themselves from evil. Besides, Jews have been doing more than that.
 

CMike

Well-Known Member
A similar difference is crucial. Jew tried to keep himself from evil , and the Christian is called upon to go further - to do good. That is, take a proactive stance in the good , the offensive against all forms of evil. Christ teaches that the true meaning of the doctrine of the law and the prophets in it.

That is incorrect.

One big commandment is to help the needy.

We are also supposed to visit the sick.

Where do you get this stuff from?
 

Silentium

New Member


Dear friends, I have studied the writings of the prophets, and I found several quotes that make me think what happened to God's Law.


The writings of the prophets tell us that God's law was changed.


The prophets tell us that the scribes had changed the God's Law

The Mosaic covenant and law were given by God, but after the years and centuries, the prophets tell us that the scribes changed the law of God. So tell us the prophets:

"... My people know not the judgment of Yahweh. How do ye say, We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us? Certainly has changed into a lie the lying pen of the scribes" (Jeremiah 8: 7-9).

"Woe to those who give wicked laws and scribes who write tyrannical prescriptions to set aside the poor and violate the rights of the underdog of my people, to rob widows and orphans" (Isaiah 10.1 -2)

"And the land is defiled under its inhabitants, because they have transgressed the laws, changed the commandments, broken the everlasting covenant" (Isaiah 24: 5-6).

"He says, therefore, the Lord: Because this people draw near me with their mouth, and honor me with their lips, but their heart is far from Me, and their fear of me is a commandment of men which have been taught" (Isaiah 29.13).

And Jesus Christ, remembering the words of the prophet Isaiah, also told the scribes and Pharisees who were teaching the commandments of men:

"Hypocrites, well did Isaiah prophesy of you, saying,
This people honors me with their lips;
But their heart is far from me.
But in vain they do worship me,
Teaching for doctrines commandments of men"
(Matthew 15.7-9


Dear friends, this is what happened, what the prophets tell us: The God's law was changed by the scribes. The Old Testament's law is different to the commandments of Jesus Christ.

Prophets are fictional. Since god can not logically be proven as an entity that takes personal interest in the affairs of men who are very new to this planet.

Trillions of stars, planets and galaxies but one special planet has these short lived prophets who conveniently talk to currently popular gods and religions and essentially tell us absolutely nothing and have done so since the inception of religion although most of the gods and religions are now gone these prophets finally have it right.
 

Shermana

Heretic
That is incorrect.

One big commandment is to help the needy.

We are also supposed to visit the sick.

Where do you get this stuff from?

It's quite apparent that the people pushing this doctrine are usually too lazy to take the few hours to actually read the texts they are claiming superiority to.
 

Porque77

The Gospel is God's Law
Jesus would never abolish the law of Moses

Jesus did not abolish the Law that God gave to Moses. But many Old Testament laws are not the true Law that God gave to Moses.

The law that God gave Moses is the Law which Jesus teaches us in the Gospel, because Jesus says this is the Law and the Prophets:

"All things whatsoever ye would that men should do to you, do ye even so to them: for this is the law and the prophets." (Matthew 7: 12).

 

FranklinMichaelV.3

Well-Known Member
Jesus did not abolish the Law that God gave to Moses. But many Old Testament laws are not the true Law that God gave to Moses.

The law that God gave Moses is the Law which Jesus teaches us in the Gospel, because Jesus says this is the Law and the Prophets:

"All things whatsoever ye would that men should do to you, do ye even so to them: for this is the law and the prophets." (Matthew 7: 12).


Do you know all 615 laws?
 

Porque77

The Gospel is God's Law
Prophets are fictional.

What you're saying really is fictional.

Since god can not logically be proven...
How God can not ?... God can do everything , because it's all Almighty.

as an entity that takes personal interest in the affairs of men who are very new to this planet.
The World is running out , and you say that men are new to this planet? Then, when they want to be old on this planet, the world no longer exists.

Trillions of stars, planets and galaxies but one special planet has these short lived prophets who conveniently talk to currently popular gods...
These poor and insignificant men have the ability to talk to God when they have good will. The mystery is have good willing. The aliens do not exist. Many " gods" do not exist. There is only Jesus Christ (the God of Love) and their children .

...who conveniently talk to currently popular gods and religions and essentially tell us absolutely nothing and have done so since the inception of religion
The false "gods" do not say anything because they are dead. And the false religions also say nothing ... But Jesus Christ says all. His Word is merciful. His Word is the Way, the Truth and the Life. Those who does not believe in Jesus Christ, have no hope. There is no life, neither hope when the wife not expect to her beloved Spouse (Jesus Christ).

although most of the gods and religions are now gone...
So, do you think at one time there were the "gods"? This contradicts what you mean.

There is only one God who exists, and this God is Love, for God is Love, and Jesus was all Love.

 

FranklinMichaelV.3

Well-Known Member
What you're saying really is fictional.

How God can not ?... God can do everything , because it's all Almighty.

The World is running out , and you say that men are new to this planet? Then, when they want to be old on this planet, the world no longer exists.

These poor and insignificant men have the ability to talk to God when they have good will. The mystery is have good willing. The aliens do not exist. Many " gods" do not exist. There is only Jesus Christ (the God of Love) and their children .

The false "gods" do not say anything because they are dead. And the false religions also say nothing ... But Jesus Christ says all. His Word is merciful. His Word is the Way, the Truth and the Life. Those who does not believe in Jesus Christ, have no hope. There is no life, neither hope when the wife not expect to her beloved Spouse (Jesus Christ).

So, do you think at one time there were the "gods"? This contradicts what you mean.


There is only one God who exists, and this God is Love, for God is Love, and Jesus was all Love.


So when God says "let us create man in our image" the use of Us was the royal kind?

When God says "Man has become like Us" that was the use of Us as a royal Kind?

When God says "Come, Let us confuse their language" that was the royal use of us?

When Psalm 82, says God presides in the great assembly;
he renders judgment among the “gods”?

Were those just plural uses?

Who exactly was the Captain of the Lords host who Joshua bowed down too?
 
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