They take everything literally, so why should we take flesh with bones and all?
Regards
Because we are conversing in English; and in English the word 'flesh' can be rendered 'human being'....bones and all!
Best regards.
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They take everything literally, so why should we take flesh with bones and all?
Regards
Please consider this a reply to both of your latest posts to me. It is my intention - God willing - to cover all that you have said; but let’s try and eat this elephant one piece at a time.
You say that Peter ‘speaks of God being perishable’. Please cite the relevant text. It does not spring to mind.
You say that the Bible ‘teaches that God is inside all things, supporting even the existence of individual people by His Spirit and power.’
I have said as much:
‘Against Deism, which teaches that God, having created the universe, leaves it to run itself, the Church teaches that He continually preserves in existence all created things. The First Vatican Council declared: ‘God, by His Providence, protects all that He has created. If His Providence did not preserve all things with the same power with which they were created in the beginning they would fall back into nothingness immediately.’ (Denzinger 1784).
‘God’s act of preservation is said to be a continuation of His creative activity. The Church cites a number of biblical verses in support of this doctrine: ‘And how could a thing subsist, had you not willed it? Or how be preserved, if not called forth by you?’ (Wisdom 11: 25); and again: ‘(Jesus’) answer to (the Jews) was: “My Father still goes on working, and I am at work, too.”’ (John 5:17). Paul ascribes the preservation as well as the creation of the world to Christ: ‘He existed before all things and in him all things hold together…’ (Col 1: 17); and again: ‘He is the reflection of God’s glory and bears the impress of God’s own being, sustaining all things by his powerful command.’ (Hebrews 1:3).
‘God preserves created things by His very presence; and He is present inside every single thing that He has created; and not only inside but outside, of course, since He is omnipresent. But who among the Christians would suggest that God actually becomes that which he sustains; or that they become God because of His presence within them? Why should Yeshua be the one exception?’ (Post 98: 19th Sept)
You write: 'The ‘concept of God as immutable is based on presumptions of who God is and what He can do.’ I outlined, in Post 98, the Church’s doctrine on God’s immutability. Here it is again:
‘We firmly believe and simply confess that there is only one true God, eternal and immeasurable, almighty, unchangeable……’ (Fourth Lateran Council: Constitution 1. Confession of Faith); and again: ‘First, then, the holy Roman church, founded on the words of our Lord and Saviour, firmly believes, professes and preaches one true God, almighty, immutable and eternal.’ (The Council of Basel: Session 114).
By ‘immutable’ is meant that in God there can be no change whatsoever. Aquinas bases the absolute immutability of God on His absolute simplicity (a Spirit, having no parts); on His pure actuality (He has no potential for change); and on His infinite perfection. According to Aquinas, mutability includes potentiality, composition and imperfection and as such is irreconcilable with God as ‘actus purus’ (the absolutely simple, absolutely perfect Essence). (cf. Summa Theologica: Part 1; Question 9; Article 1).
I have no argument with this doctrine.
How can you say that you have no ‘problem with God becoming flesh’, when you have stated that He is ‘immutable, unchangeable’; that He ‘never changes’; and that He ‘does not act contrary to His nature’? If we accept that God is immutable, then it is nonsense to claim He can change.
If, on the other hand, we say that God can change, then He cannot be immutable. Something has to give. Either He is immutable or He is not. He cannot be both, since they are mutually exclusive.
Please respond.
Jesus was not made of flesh only, he had bones also. Right, please?
Jesus was neither god nor son of god, in literal and physical terms, he was but a human being.
Regards
Flesh does not mean human being even in English, brother. I have checked it.Because we are conversing in English; and in English the word 'flesh' can be rendered 'human being'....bones and all!
Best regards.
Flesh does not mean human being even in English, brother. I have checked it.
Regards
The Gospels is neither authored by G-d, nor written by Jesus. It was anonymous narrations adopted by Pauline Churches after lot of doctoring. Most of it is simply heresy itself. Jesus was born of Mary and was only a human.Biblically, it is a heresy to say Jesus is less than God and less than fully man. Like a person with air inside them, they have air within, even in their cells as oxygen/carbon dioxide, but are flesh-and-blood people.
Biblically, people who deny Jesus is the God/man are not saved.
Biblically, it is a heresy to say Jesus is less than God and less than fully man. Like a person with air inside them, they have air within, even in their cells as oxygen/carbon dioxide, but are flesh-and-blood people.
Biblically, people who deny Jesus is the God/man are not saved.
The Gospels is neither authored by G-d, nor written by Jesus. It was anonymous narrations adopted by Pauline Churches after lot of doctoring. Most of it is simply heresy itself. Jesus was born of Mary and was only a human.
Regards
It is heresy for the Pauline Christianity. In Islam and many other religions to believe Jesus having the status of G-d or Son-of-God is heresy. And Jesus was also a Jew, not a Christian.
Regards
Correct! Jesus could not follow Himself, since Christians follow Christ. However, Paul did not "invent" a divine God-man, since every other New Testament writer acknowledges and worships the Christ.
Correct! Jesus could not follow Himself, since Christians follow Christ. However, Paul did not "invent" a divine God-man, since every other New Testament writer acknowledges and worships the Christ.
New Testament write-ups were anonymous documents, these were named after disciples for credulity. These narration/write-ups were doctored and selected by Pauline Christianity much later, while others were kept out.
Regards
Have not forgotten your last post me. A wee bit hectic at the moment!
Apparently you did not check the Cambridge Dictionary, the Oxford Dictionary or the Merriam-Webster Dictionary to name a couple of the standard English dictionaries.Flesh does not mean human being even in English, brother. I have checked it.
Regards
"New Testament write-ups were anonymous documents"Still, that is a philosophical assertion, there are not documents to prove anything you're suggesting: "The righteous is a guide to his neighbor,
But the way of the wicked leads them astray."
#132 paarsurrey
New Testament write-ups were anonymous documents, these were named after disciples for credulity. These narration/write-ups were doctored and selected by Pauline Christianity much later, while others were kept out.
"New Testament write-ups were anonymous documents"
It is mentioned in the Catholic Encyclopedia ?
Regards
Just to add...we have the words of John 1:18. "No one has seen God at any time." People saw Jesus, all over Judea and Galilee!You write: ‘The Word = the logos of God, the mind of God. Jesus had a fleshly brain. The mind of God/thought life of God was housed in a human brain.’ Are you suggesting that the only part of Yeshua that was God was his brain?
Let’s be a lot more serious: Your claim that God ‘housed’ Himself in a human body is a deliberate corruption of the text.
You know perfectly well that the author of ‘Yochanan’ does not say that the Word was ‘housed’ in flesh; he states that the ‘Word’ became flesh. This is quite a different matter.
We are agreed that God is immutable. If He is truly immutable then He cannot change. If indeed He can change, but chooses not to, then He is not immutable. We can’t have it both ways.
And the problem remains: How is it possible for God – an immutable Being – to become a human being? The Church is well aware of this problem, of course. This is what Ludwig Ott has to say:
‘…..it is objected that the Hypostatic Union contradicts the immutability of God. The rejoinder to this is that the act of becoming man, as an operation of God ad extra, has no more induced a change in the Divine Essence than did the creation of the world, as it is only the execution in time of an eternal unchangeable resolve of will. Neither did the event of the Incarnation result in a change of the Divine Essence; for, after the assumption of a body the Logos was no more perfect and no less perfect than before. No change for the worse took place, because the Logos remains what It was; and no change for the better, because It already possessed in sublime manner all perfections of the human nature from all eternity.’ (‘Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma - Chapter 4 - Theological-speculative Discussion on the Hypostatic Union’).
Let’s examine this statement more closely:
First: That the act by which the ‘Second Person of the Trinity’ (the ‘Logos’) became a man is no different from God’s act of creation; since both are merely ‘the execution in time of an eternal unchangeable resolve of (His) will.’
I know of no Trinitarian who believes that when God created the universe - and all that lies therein- He actually became this universe; this galaxy; this planet; this rock; this tree; or that He became ‘Adam’. On the other hand, every Trinitarian believes that the ‘Logos’ was made flesh.
The act of creation and the (alleged) act of Incarnation are entirely different as to their natures. The former required no change to the essential nature of God. The latter, on the other hand, could not have been achieved without change (a change from spirit to flesh).
Second: That following ‘the event of the Incarnation’ the ‘Logos’ was ‘no less perfect than before (and that) no change for the worse took place, because the Logos remains what It was.’
The Nicene Creed confesses: ‘’Who for us men and for our salvation descended from heaven and was made flesh’ (Denzinger 86). To say that the ‘Logos’ was: ‘no less perfect’ after becoming flesh that it was beforehand is to say that God and man are equal in their perfection; in their holiness; in their very natures.
The nature of God: He is spirit…………He is immutable…….He is infinite………He is omnipotent…………He is not man!
The nature of man: He is corporeal…..He is mutable…….He is finite……..He is weak……..He is not God!
How can these two natures be the same? How can a change from the former to the latter not be a change for the worse?
Third: That the ‘Logos’: ‘Already possessed in sublime manner all perfections of the human nature from all eternity.’
Really? In what way can a being that is ‘absolutely simple’ (declared as such by the 4th Lateran Council and the First Vatican Council; see Denzinger 428, 1782) – a pure spirit; being neither a body nor a composition of body and spirit – possess, in any way, and to any degree, a corporeal nature?
Ott goes on: 'The change lay on the side of the human nature only, which was elevated to participation in the Personal Subsistence of the Logos.’
In other words, instead of the ‘Word’ becoming flesh, the flesh became the ‘Word’ (to use your analogy, it was not God who became the ‘tent’; it was the ‘tent’ that became God).
Yet another, blatant, corruption of Yochanan: 14.
Council of Basel decreed that it: ‘Holds, professes and teaches that one and the same Son of God and of man, our lord Jesus Christ, is perfect in divinity and perfect in humanity; true God and true man, of a rational soul and a body; consubstantial with the Father as regards his divinity, consubstantial with us as regards his humanity; like us in all respects except for sin; begotten before the ages from the Father, and in the last days the same born according to his humanity for us and our salvation from Mary the virgin mother of God.’ (Session 13).
We are assured that: Christ is ‘perfect in humanity’….a ‘true man’…..‘consubstantial with us as regards his humanity’…..‘like us in all respects except for sin.’
The Council of Chalcedon also declared Yeshua to be ‘truly God and truly man’ (Denzinger 148).
John Hick writes: ‘(The Council of Chalcedon) merely asserted that Jesus was ‘truly God and truly man’ without attempting to say how such a paradox is possible…. Merely to assert that two different natures coexisted in Jesus ‘without confusion, without change, without division, without separation’ is to utter a form of words which as yet has no specific meaning.’ (‘The Metaphor of God Incarnate’; page 48).
You appears to argue that ‘all things are possible with God’; that He can do whatever He pleases; but this is not correct.
God can do nothing that is against His essential nature. For example, He cannot make Himself smaller, since He is absolutely infinite; He cannot make Himself ignorant, since He is Omniscient; He cannot will Himself into oblivion, since He is Eternal; He cannot change His essential nature, since He is absolutely immutable; He cannot sin, since He is Holy.
C.S. Lewis (a confirmed Trinitarian) writes: ‘(God’s) Omnipotence means power to do all that is intrinsically possible, not to do the intrinsically impossible. You may attribute miracles to Him, but not nonsense. This is no limit to His power. If you choose to say "God can give a creature free will and at the same time withhold free will from it," you have not succeeded in saying anything about God.
‘Meaningless combinations of words do not suddenly acquire meaning simply because we prefix to them the two other words "God can."… It is no more possible for God than for the weakest of His creatures to carry out both of two mutually exclusive alternatives; not because His power meets an obstacle, but because nonsense remains nonsense even when we talk it about God.’ (The Problem of Pain). My emphasis.
Lewis is saying that God cannot do what is logically impossible; and in this he is supported by Aquinas, who writes that God cannot create a man who is, at the same time, a donkey; for in the statement that a man is a donkey ‘the predicate is altogether incompatible with the subject.’ (cf. Summa Theologica: Part 1; Question 25; Article 3).
E. P. Sanders writes: ‘It lies beyond my meagre abilities as an interpreter of dogmatic theology to explain how it is possible for one person to be 100 per cent human and 100 per cent divine, without either interfering with the other.’ (The Historical Figure of Jesus’; page 134.).
And so the question remains: ‘How is it possible for a being to be both wholly God and wholly man at one and the same time?’
Thank you!
Just to add...we have the words of John 1:18. "No one has seen God at any time." People saw Jesus, all over Judea and Galilee!