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The Trinity Concept

Renji

Well-Known Member
Yes, in the beginning was the Word.
The Word was Not before the beginning as God was before the beginning.
-Psalm 90v2
God had no beginning.

The beginning that was mentioned there was the creation, when God created all things.

Who did Jesus think he was at Revelation 3v14 b?______________

Since the same Greek grammar rule applies at John [1v1] and Acts [28v6 B] then those verses have to do more with Greek grammar rules than doctrine.

Revelation 3:14-22 (King James Version)


And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God

again, the beginning of creation of God being referred here is the creation of all things and not the 'beginning' of God.

FYI, the Catholic Church applied Greek, Latin and English in studying the Bible. The word "Catholic" itself is derived from a greek bible verse as "kata" and "holos".

Doesn't John chapter 17 show how Jesus, God and his followers are all one?

John 17:11
"And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be one, as we are. "
Understanding of early Christians:
That we, as believers and followers may be "united" (being Jesus as the head and us, the Church as his body), for "God is one, for the Father and the Son are one".
 

truseeker

Member
The word for "Peter" means " a little stone". Jesus was saying that Peter was just a small piece of Christianity but the Rock the church is built on is Jesus.
 

Katzpur

Not your average Mormon
Substance= That there is only ONE God, presented into three persons: The Father(God, being the creator, 'provider' and the one who delivered His nation from the hands of the enemy). The Son (God as our savior; the Word made flesh "who Himself is God, but lowered Himself"). And The Holy Spirit (God as our guide; the spirit that serves as His power, His very own Spirit)
I'm sorry, but that does not tell me what God's substance is. I asked, "What is God's substance."

That's the reason why "He was conceived by the power of the Holy Spirit" in the womb of Virgin Mary. Through the Spirit, He was manifested into this world as a human being (the mystery of Incarnation).
And that doesn't tell me how one substance can be both corporeal and non-corporeal when the two are opposites.

Every time I try to get a straight answer to a straightforward question from a Trinitarian, I get a few sentences that may very well be what the Trinitarian believes, but they don't answer my questions. I lova ya, grandson, but you're going to have to try again.

1. What is God's substance? I know that water is a substance. I know that air is a substance. I know flesh is a substance. What is God's substance?
2. How can one substance be two opposite things?
 
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Renji

Well-Known Member
I'm sorry, but that does not tell me what God's substance is. I asked, "What is God's substance."

That's my understanding of God's substance, that there is ONE God, a spirit, presented into three persons that cannot be separated.

And that doesn't tell me how one substance can be both corporeal and non-corporeal when the two are opposites.

It does address your question. God, who, in the form of spirit was conceived through the womb of the Virgin and manifested as flesh through His power, in the form of the Holy Spirit.

1. What is God's substance? I know that water is a substance. I know that air is a substance. I know flesh is a substance. What is God's substance?

All the scriptures say is that He is a spirit.

2. How can one substance be two opposite things?

Could that be impossible, knowing that God is almighty, though He was a spirit could made Himself manifest as man in the form of Jesus Christ?

I have a lot of things in my mind right now to address your questions and clarify our Catholic inventions, err, I mean doctrines (so here I am, making a parody of what other denominations think of us):D But my sched tells me to stop and review my lessons. Well, I'll just let other Catholics to answer this...
 

Katzpur

Not your average Mormon
That's my understanding of God's substance, that there is ONE God, a spirit, presented into three persons that cannot be separated.
But the three persons were, in fact, separated the moment Jesus was born. At His baptism, the Father spoke from Heaven, the Holy Ghost appeared as a dove, and Jesus came out of the water. How much more clearly could their separate physical beings have been demonstrated?

It does address your question. God, who, in the form of spirit was conceived through the womb of the Virgin and manifested as flesh through His power, in the form of the Holy Spirit.
But once God (the Son) had a body and began His early ministry, did the Father cease to exist as an incorporeal being? Do you believe that the Father somehow became the Son and ceased to exist as the Father? Or do you believe that the Father continued to exist as an incorporeal being in Heaven?

All the scriptures say is that He is a spirit.
All? I can think of only one. Can you provide others? Also, if He was a spirit and a spirit cannot have a physical body, how can you argue that Jesus Christ, who clearly had a body, was actually God?

Could that be impossible, knowing that God is almighty, though He was a spirit could made Himself manifest as man in the form of Jesus Christ?
Well, I definitely believe that the Holy Ghost was manifest as a dove at Jesus' baptism, but that's not the same thing. He was still the Holy Ghost. What you appear to be saying is that God the Father manifest Himself as God the Son.

I have a lot of things in my mind right now to address your questions and clarify our Catholic inventions, err, I mean doctrines (so here I am, making a parody of what other denominations think of us):D But my sched tells me to stop and review my lessons. Well, I'll just let other Catholics to answer this...
Definitely get to that school work! I'm so glad I'm done with that part of my life, even if after all these years I continue to have dreams about being unprepared for class.
 
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URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
The beginning that was mentioned there was the creation, when God created all things.
Revelation 3:14-22 (King James Version)
And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God
again, the beginning of creation of God being referred here is the creation of all things and not the 'beginning' of God.
FYI, the Catholic Church applied Greek, Latin and English in studying the Bible. The word "Catholic" itself is derived from a greek bible verse as "kata" and "holos".
John 17:11
"And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be one, as we are. "

So when Jesus was praying his followers be one as he and his Father are one Jesus was not praying they all be God. So Jesus was one with his Father in unity, purpose, goal, belief, etc. but not the same person.

Right, God had no beginning so the beginning of creation would be creation of all things except God because God is un-created. Beginning would be the start so Jesus is the start, or the first heavenly creation that God created in Jesus 'pre-human life'.

In Jesus 'resurrected life' who does Jesus still think he is at Rev 2v18?________
 

Lucian

Theologian
I have only recently found out that a lot of Christians (predominantly Protestants, I gather) do not believe in the concept of the Trinity. But you believe in the Father, Son and Holy Ghost. So what does it mean to not believe in the trinity? I am thoroughly confused.

Well, in my case it means to believe that God is our Father, and that God is one, not three. It is to affirm the creed of Jesus, which is the Shema "the Lord God is one", and the prayer of Jesus, which is "Our Father".

Why are you confused?
 

Katzpur

Not your average Mormon
Well, in my case it means to believe that God is our Father, and that God is one, not three. It is to affirm the creed of Jesus, which is the Shema "the Lord God is one", and the prayer of Jesus, which is "Our Father".
Lucian, exactly what do you believe about Jesus? Was He just a good man? Did He have any power, authority or knowledge the rest of us don't also have? Was He God's Son in any way other than the way in which we are all God's sons and daughters? What is our relationship to Him? Thanks for your replies. I've always wanted to know a little bit more about Arian Christianity.
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
POST ONE OF TWO

Madhuri;

Rather than enter into a discussion which, is probably a lot like the discussion that took place at councils, such a Nicea (which produced the nicene creed), I simply wanted to make a couple of comments regarding the historical context as various christianities and their various doctrines developed. From a historical point of view, when one asks what chistians believe regarding the trinity, one must specify WHICH christianity and at WHAT TIME PERIOD since the beliefs are different between various christianities, but they are different between different time periods. Ancient Judao-Christian texts describe the three individuals differently than later theologies describe God the Father and his Son; and the Holy Spirit.


1) THE VARIETY OF UNDEVELOPED CHRISTIAN DOCTRINES IN THEIR INFANCY

I believe that when one is discussing History, ancient beliefs must be kept intact and considered inside the ancient context in order to understand what the ancients believed. Some posts attempt to refer to a time when the various christian factions are still in their infancy; a time after the apostles have all died and a time when there is no one with apostolic power of revelation to turn to for answers. This is happening at a time when many important, foundational doctrines we discuss nowadays had not been even formulated yet.

For example : The very influential Clement of Alexandria, in his age, is still in the process of formulating his personal belief on creation from “nothing”. Whereas in Clement’s earlier “hymn to the Paedogogus”, he clearly believes in the early creation from pre-existent matter.
“O King...Maker of all, who heaven and heaven’s adornment by the Divine Word alone didst make; ...according to a well-ordered plan; out of a confused heap who didst create This ordered sphere, and from the shapeless mass of matter didst the universe adorn...”
Such individuals were in the process of changing their minds and DEVELOPING the various doctrines they would ultimately believe in and teach.

Clement, like everyone else, is trying to look at the various data and formulate in his own mind, what he personally believes and it is a PROCESS from one step to another until he feels he has the best version of something he can accept; then believe in and, ultimately, teach to others as doctrine.


INFLUENCIAL THEOLOGIANS HAD NOT YET DECIDED SEVERAL SPECIFICS AS TO WHAT WAS TO BE TAUGHT REGARDING GOD
Even Clement’s successor Origen explicitly acknowledges that when he wrote around the middle of the third century a.d., there were still many very, very basic doctrines which had not been settled. For example : The issue of divine embodiment of God had yet to be settled in the Church: Origen wrote :
“How God himself is to be understood, – whether as corporeal, and formed according to some shape, or of a different nature from bodies” – is “a point which is not clearly indicated in our teachings.”
(Obviously, from the endless debates over the past 1700 years, the issue is far from settled or agreed upon...)

At some point, Clement and Origen both consider multiple issues they do not know the answer to; they then consider the data open to them and then ultimately, they decide what they personally believe and they write about it. However, it is important to understand that these influential individuals are not simply EXPLAINING confirmed, accepted, doctrine, but they are THEORIZING and are CREATING new doctrines (which later christians inherit by simple tradition). It is the creation of doctrine by influential individuals for the consumption of the general masses.
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2) THE THEOLOGIAN’S METHOD OF CREATING DOCTRINE

While a prophet or apostle lived, the church was alive and correct doctrine could be had by revelation from an authorized source. However, these great apostolic and prophetic lights went out. Without clear and simple scriptural statements and texts that explained new questions as they arose, then I believe the early and influential theologians such as Origen and Clement simply did the best they could with what they had.


And what was it they used to develop doctrines for their particular Christianity?

Origen proposed to make theological questions a matter of rational and scriptural investigation with a view to formulating a coherent body of doctrine
“by means of illustrations and arguments, – either those...discovered in holy Scripture, or...deduced by closely tracing out the consequences and following “a correct method”. (Whatever “correct method” meant to Origen is not clear).
The point is, that Origen is in the same position as all non-prophets. Without revelation, he says that he is left to his own wit and logic and bias and back ground, and whatever limited data he can bring to the task. The Nicene Debaters had no additional tools that were unavailable to the early theologians.
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3) ECCLESIATICAL DELIBERATION; DEBATE; AND DECISION REGARDING DOCTRINE
. .VERSUS
. .SIMPLE PROPHETIC DECLARATION OF DOCTRINE



Truseeker asked in post #38 “Who gave the bishops and pope the right to decide.”
Lawrence replied in post #40 “ Eph 2:20 Built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, with Christ Jesus himself as the capstone Jn20:21 Jesus said to them (apostles), "Peace be with you. As the Father sent me, so I send you." Mt 16:18 And so I say to you, you are Peter, and upon this rock, I will build my church
Without better commentary by Lawrence, it's difficult to tell what he wants such quotes to mean to him. However, given the theme of the scriptures, one might suspect he is saying the apostles and prophets and peter were given authority to "decide doctrine". However, I do not think this is correct and will explain.

Given the doctrinal confusion within the various fledgling Christianities in the first 2-3 centuries, I’ve also wondered how and why various competing doctrines developed and why some doctrines won out in popularity over others and thus, in a somewhat arbitrary way, become a “standard” doctrine for a particular brand of christianity.

I think Truseeker asks an important question regarding the right to “decide” which doctrine would be taught by western christianity.

In the aftermath of the apostles death, there is no central authority to whom Christians in the late first and second centuries can go to decide doctrine. We certainly have no period-appropriate evidence that Peter was ever became a Bishop of Rome, nor that he passed on any Apostolic power to Clement or any other member of the developing roman congregation.


POST TWO OF TWO FOLLOWS
 
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Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
POST TWO OF TWO


“If Peter ever came to Rome” and stayed there relates Goguel (which one can neither prove nor deny since we don’t have record of him after he left Antioch) “his presence there left no direct or deep memories” in anyone who lived in Rome at that time.

This complete Silence regarding Peter for more than twenty years is absolutely amazing if Peter actually had gone to Rome and left the apostleship to become a Bishop over the Church Congregation in Rome. It would be like having Peter in a 20 year presidency of the United States, but no record of Peter's sayings as president, no record of his acts; no legislation he signed; no people he met nor speeches he gave. It's almost inconceivable historically that he could have been president without SOME record of what he did in this important position.


For example : The Patrologiae Graeca contains TWO ENTIRE VOLUMES dedicated to Clement, who was a Bishop over the Roman Congregation at most for only 10 years (and no one regarded Clement as important as Peter), yet when one turns to the earliest written traditions for Rome, the records speak of Clement and are completely silent on Peter.

If Peter stayed in Rome, ESPECIALLY if he actually became Bishop of Rome, then there should be a great deal of textual records as there are for Clement. However, There are no records of Peter’s sermons, his miracles, his conversations, is administrative acts, etc. Clement himself writes a great deal regarding personal daily interactions with Peter when Peter is in Palestine. But, upon leaving Palestine, even Clement loses sight of Peter and writes nothing of what happened to him. If Peter DID go to Rome and stay there for more than 20 years, then the silence and void is even more astounding. The vast doctrinal void created by the lack of apostles and prophets left theologians with doctrinal difficulties.

As I showed, the early doctrines are immature and even the theologian Origen admits that the christians of his age discuss and debate, but do not even know whether God the Father was corporal or incorporal. They simply did not know these things as they were not clearly stated nor passed on, but rather decisions were made as to how questions would be answered and what would be taught in developing christianity.

Members of a group of Christian making a decision as to what they believe and what they will teach, whether the nicene group (or a group of forum members), is NOT the same process as Prophetic declaration based on direct revelation from God. A few forum members might, as an influential group, come to an agreement on a particular belief. They might then decide what they, as a group, will teach. It might even become the most popular doctrine on a specific subject. Yet it remains a single doctrine among a larger set of possible truths. They may be correct or they may not be correct in this belief they hold.

However Prophets, do NOT simply decide for themselves what they believe from a smorgasbord of doctrinal possibilities and then teach THAT belief as doctrine. Rather they, having REVELATION, simply proclaimed the truths they were given by revelation.

When Peter proclaims that Jesus is the Christ, Jesus says to him “Blessed art thou, Simon Bar-jona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven. And I say also unto thee, That thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church; and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it. (Matt 16:17-18 kjv)

If, by these verses, Jesus is saying it is prophetic REVELATION from God upon which any authentic Church is to be built and maintained, then this is consistent with a PROPHETIC pattern of doctrine built upon revelation.

If, by this verse, Jesus is saying that PETER is the object upon which an authentic church is to be built and maintained (and NOT revelation), then, the power dies with Peter unless this is a power Peter could and did transfer to another.

However, as I mentioned, (though later century claims surfaced), we have no period-appropriate evidence that Peter either could do this, nor that he did do this.


Clear
draceihh
 
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truseeker

Member
The Greek word for Peter is Petros which means a small stone. The word for rock is Petra. Peter is NOT the rock but the church is built on Jesus who is the rock.
 

Mister Emu

Emu Extraordinaire
Staff member
Premium Member
Clear said:
However, given the theme of the scriptures, one might suspect he is saying the apostles and prophets and peter were given authority to "decide doctrine".
Peter was given authority as of the King of Heaven... that is what to receive the "Keys" means.

In the aftermath of the apostles death, there is no central authority to whom Christians in the late first and second centuries can go to decide doctrine.
I think the historical texts disagree with you here(Listed early to late.):
Clement involves himself in the affairs of the Church at Corinth saying that God wrote through him and that to disagree was no small transgression and danger.

Ignatius writes in 107 that Rome presided over the Church.

Irenaeus, disciple of a Bishop directly appointed by St. John, wrote that Rome has superior authority, and that all the faithful must agree with it.
These all fall within your range ;)

This complete Silence regarding Peter for more than twenty years is absolutely amazing if Peter actually had gone to Rome and left the apostleship to become a Bishop over the Church Congregation in Rome
1 Peter was written from Rome.

For example : The Patrologiae Graeca contains TWO ENTIRE VOLUMES dedicated to Clement, who was a Bishop over the Roman Congregation at most for only 10 years
What do you believe is the significance of this?

Clement himself writes a great deal regarding personal daily interactions with Peter when Peter is in Palestine. But, upon leaving Palestine, even Clement loses sight of Peter and writes nothing of what happened to him.
That is incorrect. In his Epistle to the Corinthians Clement writes of Peter's death.

If, by this verse, Jesus is saying that PETER is the object upon which an authentic church is to be built and maintained (and OT revelation), then, the power dies with Peter unless this is a power Peter could and did transfer to another.
The passage continues, and the subject is further clarified as Jesus gives the Keys to Kingdom of Heaven, the authority to act on behalf of the king(God), and the power to bind and loose on earth and in heaven to Peter.

truseeker said:
The Greek word for Peter is Petros which means a small stone. The word for rock is Petra. Peter is NOT the rock but the church is built on Jesus who is the rock.
They would not have spoken in Greek.
 

truseeker

Member
To say Peter is the king of Heaven just because he received the keys makes no sense. God is the one and only King of Heaven.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
Peter was given authority as of the King of Heaven... that is what to receive the "Keys" means.

I think the historical texts disagree with you here(Listed early to late.):
Clement involves himself in the affairs of the Church at Corinth saying that God wrote through him and that to disagree was no small transgression and danger.
Ignatius writes in 107 that Rome presided over the Church.
Irenaeus, disciple of a Bishop directly appointed by St. John, wrote that Rome has superior authority, and that all the faithful must agree with it.
These all fall within your range ;)
1 Peter was written from Rome.
What do you believe is the significance of this?
That is incorrect. In his Epistle to the Corinthians Clement writes of Peter's death.
The passage continues, and the subject is further clarified as Jesus gives the Keys to Kingdom of Heaven, the authority to act on behalf of the king(God), and the power to bind and loose on earth and in heaven to Peter.
They would not have spoken in Greek.

The religious leaders [Luke 11vs52,53] took away the 'key' of knowledge from the people.

Peter given the keys to the kingdom that would 'unlock that knowledge' to the people notably on three different occasions:
1] Acts 2vs1-41at Pentecost Peter used a key to unlock the way for the Jews.
2] Acts 8vs14-17 Peter uses a key to unlock the way for the Samaritans.
3] Acts 10vs1-48; 15vs7-9 Peter uses a key to unlock the way for the Gentiles.

Jesus remains the Head of the Christian congregation. So Peter was not directing heaven, rather Peter was used by heaven in unlocking or loosing what was determined for the keys to unlock or to open up the way for others.


[1st Cor 11v3; Eph 4 v15,16; 5v23; Col 2 vs8-10; Lk 20v17;Psalm 118v22;
1st Peter 2 vs6,7 B]
 

Mister Emu

Emu Extraordinaire
Staff member
Premium Member
To say Peter is the king of Heaven just because he received the keys makes no sense. God is the one and only King of Heaven.
Who said Peter was the king of Heaven?
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Hello Mr Emu: You’ve raised some interesting points, some I’ve not heard before and admit that I am intrigued :

1) REGARDING PETER'S AUTHORITY
Mr Emu claimed : “Peter was given Authority of the King of Heaven”. However, the issue was NOT whether Peter was given some degree of Authority, I agree with you that Peter was given special authority. The issue was WHETHER PETER BECAME A BISHOP AND PASSED ON THIS AUTHORITY to the roman church who has so much influence in the production of traditions concerning the trinity.
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2)
Clear claimed : In the aftermath of the apostles death, there is no central authority to whom Christians in the late first and second centuries can go to decide doctrine.
Mr Emu claimed : I think the historical texts disagree with you here(Listed early to late.)

And Mr Emu uses three examples

firstly Mr Emu says: “Clement involves himself in the affairs of the Church at Corinth saying that God wrote through him and that to disagree was no small transgression and danger.”

I agree that Clement of Rome wrote to the corinthians, however Clement is setting no particular authoritative precedent by doing this because bishops OFTEN wrote letters to other congregations. Bishop IGNATIUS of Antioch writes letters of repentance; encouragement and doctrine to the Ephesians; the Magnesians; the Trallians: the Philadelphians; to the Smyrnaeans; AND of interest, Ignatius also writes to the roman congregation regarding their need for repentance. Bishop POLYCARP of Smyrna in Asia minor also write similar letters of doctrine and need for repentance and moral vigilance to the Philipians.

Many bishops “involved themselves in the affairs of other congregations”. Still, these Bishops are not and do not represent themselves as a single and central authority over entire christendom, and importantly, Bishop Ignatius admits this lack of global authority as a Bishop of a congregation. Ignatius tells his readers “..I did not think myself qualified for this, that I, a convict, should give you orders as though I were an apostle.” The A Arabic rendition renders the words “I was not qualified” as “ I was not empowered” for this - (lightfoot) Compare 3, in PG 5:780 where it is rendered “Shall I . . . reach such a pitch of presumption . . . as to issue commands to you as if I were an Apostle?". Bishop Ignatius recognized the difference between a Bishop and an Apostle.


Not only was common for bishops to communicate with other congregations, but importantly, the various letter to various congregations OFTEN involved observations of apostasy, both doctrinal and in actions : "Your falling out has turned many aside, has plunged many into despair, caused many to vacillate, and brought sorrow to us all, and your disorder is chronic." (Clement of Rome from 46, in PG 1:213-16) The schisms are both advanced and long-standing. Perhaps they were a lot like the schisms among christians on this forum.

Of interest, when similar types of apostasy arose in the Roman church, , Polycarp, Bishop of Smyrna, and Irenaeus, Bishop of Lyons, specifically reprimanded the Romans, (in some cases more roughly than Clement reprimanded the Corinthians) (cf Irenaeus, Against Heresies III, 3, 4, in PG 7:85-88; Eusebius, HE V, 24-28, in PG 20:493-517) For a bishop of a congregation to write to another congregation does not imply the authority you want to give the event.


Secondly Mr Emu writes : “Ignatius writes in 107 that Rome presided over the Church.” - you will have to give us a reference so as to allow us to study the actual quote your referring to. For the present, I doubt the text means what you want it to mean in this case. Let's see the text itself.
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Thirdly Mr Emu claimed : Irenaeus, disciple of a Bishop directly appointed by St. John, wrote that Rome has superior authority, and that all the faithful must agree with it. In this case, as with your second claim, you will have to give us a reference to study the text you are referring to. Again, let us read the text to see what it actually means.
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3) Clear said : “Clement himself writes a great deal regarding personal daily interactions with Peter when Peter is in Palestine. But, upon leaving Palestine, even Clement loses sight of Peter and writes nothing of what happened to him.”
Mr. Emu responded : That is incorrect. In his Epistle to the Corinthians Clement writes of Peter's death.
Clear reminds Mr. Emu to read the RECOGNITIONS where the homilies' history of Clement tells of Clements conversion and his initial meetings with the very much alive Apostle Peter and of his daily interactions with the Apostle Peter over a significant period of time. The recognitions are integral to the early homilies, popular among christians. I might also remind us that ALL of these texts are pseudographical to the extent that we cannot prove who wrote ANY of them and simply ascribe authorship due to tradition.
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4) Clear said : “This complete Silence regarding Peter for more than twenty years is absolutely amazing if Peter actually had gone to Rome and left the apostleship to become a Bishop over the Church Congregation in Rome. “
Mr Emu responded : "1 Peter was written from Rome".

1 Peter could certainly have been written by Peter in rome. However, the claim doesn’t care whether Peter was IN Rome or not. The claim is that there is no time-appropriate textual evidence that Peter was a Bishop in Rome for a 20 plus year period AND that he passed on Apostolic authority and powers. (It would not have taken twenty plus years for Peter to write the text of 1 Peter).
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5) THE LACK OF TEXTUAL EVIDENCE
Mr Emu, if you know of ANY un-equivocal period-appropriate textual evidence that Peter was bishop in Rome this would be very, very important since some of the greatest period historians in the world have never found any early indication that Peter was ever a Bishop of Rome. For example, Lightfoot, the wonderful scholar and EDITOR of the Apostolic Fathers (Which is the very book you claim supports your point). Yet Lightfoot, as the editor of the book could not find support within his own book, for Peter as Bishop. Adolph Karnack who obviously needs no introduction, and others could never find data supporting the roman back claim the Peter had given them authority. Part of their reasoning for this conclusion was the lack of any historical data from appropriate time periods (more on records later) that supports this specific roman Catholic Claim.


A) If Peter WAS illiterate as some have claimed, then he could not have written first peter. If Peter WAS literate, then he would not have written ONLY first peter during any hypothetical 20 plus years in Rome. It is inconceivable to me that a “bishop” Peter would NOT have written something during the more than two decades it is claimed that he was Bishop. Remember, Peter does NOT have to write with his own hand, but need simply employ a few secretaries.

Origen and Augustine kept several secretaries very busy taking their dictation in their prodigious production of texts. Paul doesn’t write his text, but leaves it to another to write. Also, as administrative support increases, the ease with which texts are generated increases, ease of transmission increases; ease of stationary storage increases; ease of distribution increases; and the ease and amount of copying improves.

POST TWO OF TWO CONTINUE
 
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Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
POST TWO OF TWO


B) During this time period, the church is experiencing amazing growth (which requires guidance and administration to a greater degree than a church in a “steady state). It is inconceivable to me that Peter would not have provided this guidance and administration, much of it in the form of written text. If he was a bishop, I do not believe he would have written LESS than as an apostle-missionary, but he would probably have written MORE as administrative duties requiring textual communications grew (though the nature of and content of the texts would have been somewhat different).

C) It is difficult to imagine that the apostle Peter would not have given many types of textual testimonies of Jesus to many groups in many contexts over a 20 year period and I believe that such texts would have been copied and distributed just as other sacred christian texts were copied and distributed widely.

D) It is equally difficult to believe that there would not continue to be a concern with growing apostasy and heresies and conflicting doctrines as the church took root both in Rome and among differing culture and countries and that a Peter, acting as a “general Bishop” would not send textual letters (epistles) out to attempt to deal with such issues. The Galatians were not the only ones who were “soon removed” from the original teachings of the Apostles. Peter would have offered guidance and admonishment as other Bishops did (clement, ignatius, etc).

E) It is inconceivable to me that Peter would not have offered Doctrinal guidance in a textual form to make corrections to competing doctrines and questions that arise concerning the gospel.

F) Peter would have had at least a few public debates or at least public "disagreements" from detractors, such as his extraordinary debate with Simon Magnus, which were immortalized in the Clementine recognitions.

G) It is incredible that Peter or his administration would not have generated textual records associated with mundane administrative affairs; the buying of supplies and food and records relating to the distribution of welfare. Such is the nature of the majority of the earliest hierarchal records of egypt from thousands of years previous. Some of these should be extant.

H) I believe that the miracles which were to follow “those that believe” would have continued in Peter and many of them would have been textually documented and immortalized had he been in one place over a period of 20 years. Healing and miracles he continually wrought would have been written about by both the Christians and the non-christians in a community in which Peter lived for 20 years.

I) It is inconceivable that there would be no textual records associated with the organization of and adminstration of and direction of a growing christendom itself, records of those who were directly ordained and sent by the Peter as a “bishop” to a certain task, (Certainly many more ordinations than Clement alone)


J) Invariably, at least some of these texts sent out to different countries and congregations would have been highly valued and retained. It is very unlikely that all copies of such documents would have undergone destruction.

6) THE DEPTH OF INCONCEIVABLENESS DEEPENS WITH ADDITIONAL SOURCES OF TEXTUAL EVIDENCE WE SHOULD BE ABLE TO FIND.
For example, it is NOT just PETER’S “writings” that we should find evidence of, but there should be writings generated ABOUT Peter the Bishop by others.

For example:

A) It is inconceivable to me that the ROMAN’S themselves, in their administrative duties, would not have written ABOUT Peter as a Bishop and mention something about their interactions and knowledge of him as a Bishop of the Christian Church there.

What are the chances, given the roman’s record keeping ability, that THEY would not have found SOMETHING or that they would have lost all such records concerning Peter?

B) It is inconceivable to me that the ENEMIES of Christianity would not have written about Peter and the Christians just as others (such as Celsus) had done.for years. Why would the Jewish and Pagan leaders have not continued complaining about “Peter and the Christians” and no records of such complaints be extant?

C) What are the chances that none of the period historians, “small or large”, altogether avoided writing about Peter as the head of the Roman Church. It is inconceivable to me that some historian, either small or great, living near the time of Peter, a “bishop of Rome” would not have written about him. Josephus, who returned to live in Rome doesn’t mention Peter as Bishop of Rome, Tacitus doesn’t, Suetonius' knew vespacian and he even he had access to the imperial archives (which presumably would have SOMETHING about Peter in them), yet his series of biographies (“Illustrious Men”) doesn’t mention Peter (though it included poets and orators), If Plutarch mentioned Peter as Bishop, this part of his textual history did not survive. Did Peter, as a bishop, not rate enough importance for historians?


D) It is inconceivable to me that at least ONE of the members of the Roman church would not write about Peter in a diary or secular text about Peter. For example, we know so much about what early Christianity taught and was like, even about the early martyrdoms through the diary of Perpetua. She writes about her Bishop Optatus (who is certainly NOT a famous person). Why would no other member discuss Peter as their bishop in some extant diary entry or letter? Many, many personal experiences should have and would have been written by many literate individuals who would have access and dealings with Peter as a standing bishop.

I think I’ve oversimplified this description as it is even more complicated than this, but it introduces other historical issues that one must consider besides the simple issue of whether Peter himself wrote a text and whether a single small text was written in Rome or not. It introduces some context as to why very prominent scholars would teach that Peter was never the Bishop of Rome for 20 years as Catholic tradition suggests.

Thus, until we can find period-appropriate data (rather than later century "back claims") the lack of evidence that Peter was ever Bishop of Rome and the absence of Apostolic authority in post-apostolic churches still stands.


Mr. Emu, I am VERY interested in the quotes you say exist. I appreciate your diligence in providing the requested references. I am intrigued and ready to find out something I didn't know about this specific issue of this time period.
If the quotes you say exist; really DO, in fact exist and, if they say what you claim they say in proper context, then this would be a marvelous discovery and change things for many scholars who are unaware of such texts.


Clear
VIDRNEMN
 
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