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The trinity is false - I have proof

blü 2

Veteran Member
Premium Member
Hi blu 2,

I couldn't follow everything you were saying. But I will try to address what I can.
My apologies ─ I neglected to proofread again after I'd hit 'Post'. (Now sorted.)
Colossians 2:9 lets us know the fullness of the Godhead (or diety) was in him bodily.
2 Corinthians 5:19 says God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself...
2 Corinthians 5:19 says (NRSVue) ─
19 that is, in Christ God was reconciling the world to himself,[x] not counting their trespasses against them, and entrusting the message of reconciliation to us. 20 So we are ambassadors for Christ, since God is making his appeal through us; we entreat you on behalf of Christ: be reconciled to God. 21For our sake God made the one who knew no sin to be sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.​

but footnote [x] gives an alternative reading for verse 19 :
Or, God was in Christ reconciling the world to himself.[/i]​

As I said, the Jesus of Paul and the Jesus of John have Gnostic features, not shared with the synoptics. The Gnostic God was exquisitely pure spirit and thus would never entertain the idea of a material world, so it fell to the Jesus of Paul and the Jesus of John to create the material world (the role of the Gnostic 'demiurge' (craftsman)). For Paul, note ─

1 Corinthians 8:6 yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist.

and for John ─

John 1:2 He was in the beginning with God; 3 all things were made through him, and without him was not anything made that was made.​

The Gnostic God (being absolutely pure) was also incredibly remote. That's why the Jesus of Paul and particularly the Jesus of John think of Jesus as the bridge between man and God. This is most clearly, but not only, found in John 17 eg


20 “I ask not only on behalf of these but also on behalf of those who believe in me through their word; 21 that they may all be one. As you, Father, are in me and I am in you, may they also be in us, so that the world may believe that you have sent me. 22 The glory that you have given me I have given them, so that they may be one, as we are one, 23 I in them and you in me, that they may become completely one, so
that the world may know that you have sent me and have loved them even as you have loved me. 24 Father, I desire that those also, whom you have given me, may be with me where I am, to see my glory, which you have given me because you loved me before the foundation of the world. (NRSVue)​
Just because Mark didn't cover everything mentioned in Matthew or Luke's accounts doesn't negate them.
But they definitely differ. The problem with trying to reconcile the disagreements between the five versions of Jesus into a single model is that all you end up with is a sixth model that disagrees with the other five.
I don't see Paul or John having taught that he pre-existed in heaven with God.
See the quotes above.
Paul taught that when the time was right, he was made of a woman, made under the law. Galatians 4:4
Yes, but Paul is very sketchy if we're looking for a biography of Jesus. Paul's Jesus pre-existed in heaven, made the material world, was born of a woman and was a descendant of David, he was crucified by the Romans, was buried, and was seen by "the 500" after his death ─ I don't think I've left much out.
YHWH was going to come down and tread upon the high places of the earth (Jerusalem) according to Micah 1:3-5
Isaiah 40:3 prophesied about a voice that crieth in the wilderness Prepare ye the way of YHWH, make straight in the desert a highway for our God. And in Isaiah 40:9 say unto the cities of Judah, Behold your God!
But for Paul, the God of Jesus is NOT the God of the Tanakh ─ the glaring difference being Paul's willingness to discard the covenant of circumcision (on the grounds that it was getting in the way of sales, as no doubt it would).
Then we get to the New Testament and the voice turns out to be John the Baptist. Matthew 3:1-3 John was clearly preparing the way for the Messiah. How can this be?
Because the authors of the gospels drew on the Tanakh for their 'life of Jesus' and moved him, as authors can, through various scenes so that he "might fulfill prophecy". They all do it, but the author of Matthew is as blatant as any eg (Matthew 21:2-5) he absurdly sits Jesus across a foal and a donkey to ride into Jerusalem “to fulfill prophecy” in Zechariah 9.9.
It's because the Messiah was YHWH here in a body. YHWH took on flesh to be able to shed blood for our sins. Acts 20:28 - feed the church of God, which he (God) hath purchased with his own blood.
The NRSVue version of Acts 20:28 instead reads ─
28 Keep watch over yourselves and over all the flock, of which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers, to shepherd the church
of God that he obtained with the blood of his own Son.​
though with the footnote: "Or, with his own blood; Gk with the blood of his Own." (The Greek is 20:28 προσέχετε ἑαυτοῖς καὶ παντὶ τῷ ποιμνίῳ ἐν ᾧ ὑμᾶς τὸ πνεῦμα τὸ ἅγιον ἔθετο ἐπισκόπους ποιμαίνειν τὴν ἐκκλησίαν τοῦ θεοῦ ἣν περιεποιήσατο διὰ τοῦ αἵματος τοῦ ἰδίου.

But God being crucified and God's son being crucified are two very different theologies, and it makes inexplicable the Jesus of Mark and the Jesus of Matthew, on the cross, crying out "Me, me, why have I forsaken me?" and all four gospel Jesuses saying in the garden, "If it be my will, let this cup pass from me."
 

Sargonski

Well-Known Member
I never said, Jesus was claiming to be God the Father. He was claiming to be fully G_d.

Where is does Jesus and the Father disagrees? We know he was fully obedient to the Father.

John 8:28
So Jesus said to them, “When you lift up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am He, and that I do nothing on My own. But just as the Father taught Me, I say these things.

Luke 22:39-42
Holman Christian Standard Bible
The Prayer in the Garden
39 He went out and made His way as usual to the Mount of Olives, and the disciples followed Him. 40 When He reached the place, He told them, “Pray that you may not enter into temptation.” 41 Then He withdrew from them about a stone’s throw, knelt down, and began to pray, 42 “Father, if You are willing, take this cup away from Me—nevertheless, not My will, but Yours, be done.”

Jesus said, “I seek not to please myself but him who sent me” (John 5:30)
John 6:38
Jesus said, "For I have come down from heaven not to do my will but the will of Him who sent me".

Other verses that show Jesus' submission to the Father include:
John 4:34
John 8:26
John 10:18
John 12:49-50
John 14:30-31
John 15:10

Jesus is both Divine by nature and submits to his Father.

Philippians 2:5-8
Let this mind be in you which was also in Christ Jesus, who, being in the form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God, but made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of a bondservant, and coming in the likeness of men. And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to the point of death, even the death of the cross.

John 8:28-29
Then Jesus said to them, "When you lift up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am He, and that I do nothing of Myself; but as My Father taught Me, I speak these things. And He who sent Me is with Me. The Father has not left Me alone, for I always do those things that please Him."

John 14:10
Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me? The words that I speak to you I do not speak on My own authority; but the Father who dwells in Me does the works.

Luke 2:49
And He said to them, “Why did you seek Me? Did you not know that I must be about My Father’s business?”

Fully God ?? - how on earth to you go from Jesus stating he is going about the Father's business - to Jesus claiming to be a God .. Help me to understand how this is possible in a rational world .. and what part of John is not a synoptic Gospel did you forget .. and how is it that I have already educated you in "The Logos" and explained how Jesus is the symbolic representation of God's word ... and yet you pretend not to be able to figure out John 14 "Father in Me" and why my God are you posting scripture from Phillipeans .. like Why .. Why would you do that ? I don't get how you don't get it Pillipeans is not Jesus speaking .. how is it you don't understand this by now.

What part of .. I already told you Jesus divinity was shown to be submissive to the father .. slipped through the cracks .. so why on earth are you posting verses of Jesus shown submissive to the Father .. the point of which .. the Trinity is not in the Bible .

Now -- John 8 "Son of Man" although your not really allowed to use John .. this term is used in other places that do count and so congratulations for posting something from scripture that is sensible .. as here Jesus is claiming to have the divine spark (your use of the term Fully God is strange .. the descriptive adjective makes no sense .. and is undefined) that Jesus is a God .. not Fully God .. is implied .. or at least divine .. but a lesser and subservient God .. one thing we can say for certain is that to a first century Jew .. "Son of Man" was not a human .. but a divinity who would come to judge humans at the end of the messianic age .. the apocalypse.. sitting at the right hand of the Father in Matt 25 - sheep and goats parable which I am sure you are familiar .. Jesus presented as Judge .. separating the Goats and the Sheep on the basis of "Works" .. faith having not part in the plan.

The overall moral of the story is that the NT story has more than one God in attendance .. more than two if we count Jesus as a God
 

Sargonski

Well-Known Member
Face it , you just believe in more than one God.

This is not about what I believe but what the Bible teaches .. and about what the people around at the time of the writing of that scripture believed. .. and thus what needs be faced is the fact of what you believe .. matters not in this conversation .. we are interested in what in Israelite visiting the Temple of YHWH in 900 BC believed .. and what you must face is the fact that they all believed in the existence of many Gods .. as did all the other Canaanites .. and all the other peoples of the world. In the Temple of YHWH .. you would find his consort Asherah .. "queen of heaven" worshiped along side YHWH .. and a divine trinity with daughter Anat .. also worshiped at the temple of YHWH .. and I will leave it to your imagination what the male and female prostitutes were for.

Face it -- not only did the Israelites believe in many Gods .. Jesus also believes in more than one God .. and that the God of Jesus " The Father who art in heavean .. Hallowed be thy name" and well .. lets face facts ... that Hallowed name is not son of God YHWH.
 

Sargonski

Well-Known Member
I never said, Jesus was claiming to be God the Father. He was claiming to be fully G_d.

Where is does Jesus and the Father disagrees? We know he was fully obedient to the Father.

I don't think you know what it is you are claiming :) and how is it that you do not understand that Lord Jesus can be both obedient and disagree ? whats the problem ? you were told where Jesus disagrees at least a couple of times now ? Jesus does not want to go through with the Human Sacrifice... Jesus ends up obeying the command .. but this is not his Will .. showing us these are two separate minds .. that do not always agree .. just like another "Son of God" who is subordinate to "The Father" but does not always agree .. "Pleased to meet you .. don't forget my name" is the name of this God .. Chief God over the earth .. tester of souls .. until such time as Jesus takes over .. seated at the right hand of the Father .. until such time as the "Son of Man" come .. to give poor Sataniel long awaited and well deserved rest . babysitting these humans ..no easy task.
 

learner Daniel

Active Member
The Father of Jesus "dwelling" in him DOES NOT mean that the Father was not a different person in heavens.

Mat. 7:11 Therefore, if you, although being wicked, know how to give good gifts to your children, how much more so will your Father who is in the heavens give good things to those asking him!
... 10:
32 “Everyone, then, who acknowledges me before men, I will also acknowledge him before my Father who is in the heavens. 33 But whoever disowns me before men, I will also disown him before my Father who is in the heavens.

Mat. 24:36 says the same thing.

Jesus and his Father, God, were two different persons before Jesus was born as a human (John 1:2,14,18), two different persons when Jesus was a human (John 17:1; Mat. 26:53), and they are now two different persons, with different names:

Rev. 3:12 The one who conquers—I will make him a pillar in the temple of my God, and he will by no means go out from it anymore, and I will write upon him the name of my God and the name of the city of my God, the New Jerusalem that descends out of heaven from my God, and my own new name.

So, i
n the temple of heaven one God is worshipped, the God of whom Jesus is high priest.

Heb. 5:
5
So, too, the Christ did not glorify himself by becoming a high priest, but was glorified by the One who said to him: “You are my son; today I have become your father.”
not sure why I thought of this verse.

1 John 2:23
Whoever does not believe in the Son does not have the Father, but whoever accepts the Son has the Father too.
 

learner Daniel

Active Member
Fully God ?? - how on earth to you go from Jesus stating he is going about the Father's business - to Jesus claiming to be a God .. Help me to understand how this is possible in a rational world .. and what part of John is not a synoptic Gospel did you forget .. and how is it that I have already educated you in "The Logos" and explained how Jesus is the symbolic representation of God's word ... and yet you pretend not to be able to figure out John 14 "Father in Me" and why my God are you posting scripture from Phillipeans .. like Why .. Why would you do that ? I don't get how you don't get it Pillipeans is not Jesus speaking .. how is it you don't understand this by now.

What part of .. I already told you Jesus divinity was shown to be submissive to the father .. slipped through the cracks .. so why on earth are you posting verses of Jesus shown submissive to the Father .. the point of which .. the Trinity is not in the Bible .

Now -- John 8 "Son of Man" although your not really allowed to use John .. this term is used in other places that do count and so congratulations for posting something from scripture that is sensible .. as here Jesus is claiming to have the divine spark (your use of the term Fully God is strange .. the descriptive adjective makes no sense .. and is undefined) that Jesus is a God .. not Fully God .. is implied .. or at least divine .. but a lesser and subservient God .. one thing we can say for certain is that to a first century Jew .. "Son of Man" was not a human .. but a divinity who would come to judge humans at the end of the messianic age .. the apocalypse.. sitting at the right hand of the Father in Matt 25 - sheep and goats parable which I am sure you are familiar .. Jesus presented as Judge .. separating the Goats and the Sheep on the basis of "Works" .. faith having not part in the plan.

The overall moral of the story is that the NT story has more than one God in attendance .. more than two if we count Jesus as a God

Matt says things better than I can
 

learner Daniel

Active Member
Fully God ?? - how on earth to you go from Jesus stating he is going about the Father's business - to Jesus claiming to be a God .. Help me to understand how this is possible in a rational world .. and what part of John is not a synoptic Gospel did you forget .. and how is it that I have already educated you in "The Logos" and explained how Jesus is the symbolic representation of God's word ... and yet you pretend not to be able to figure out John 14 "Father in Me" and why my God are you posting scripture from Phillipeans .. like Why .. Why would you do that ? I don't get how you don't get it Pillipeans is not Jesus speaking .. how is it you don't understand this by now.

What part of .. I already told you Jesus divinity was shown to be submissive to the father .. slipped through the cracks .. so why on earth are you posting verses of Jesus shown submissive to the Father .. the point of which .. the Trinity is not in the Bible .

Now -- John 8 "Son of Man" although your not really allowed to use John .. this term is used in other places that do count and so congratulations for posting something from scripture that is sensible .. as here Jesus is claiming to have the divine spark (your use of the term Fully God is strange .. the descriptive adjective makes no sense .. and is undefined) that Jesus is a God .. not Fully God .. is implied .. or at least divine .. but a lesser and subservient God .. one thing we can say for certain is that to a first century Jew .. "Son of Man" was not a human .. but a divinity who would come to judge humans at the end of the messianic age .. the apocalypse.. sitting at the right hand of the Father in Matt 25 - sheep and goats parable which I am sure you are familiar .. Jesus presented as Judge .. separating the Goats and the Sheep on the basis of "Works" .. faith having not part in the plan.

The overall moral of the story is that the NT story has more than one God in attendance .. more than two if we count Jesus as a God
*** If God is unchanging, how can Jesus be God in flesh?

Jesus has two natures at the same time: divine and human at the same time. He is both God and man (John 1:1, 14; Col. 2:9). This is called the Hypostatic Union.

Verses showing Jesus is divine
He is God in flesh (John 1:1, 14; 8:58 with Exodus 3:14; Col. 2:9; Phil. 2:5-8; Heb. 1:8).
John 1:1, 14, “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God . . . 14 And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us . . . ”
This shows that Jesus is God in flesh.
If you say that John 1:1 should be “a” god, then . . .
If Jesus is “a” god, then isn’t that polytheism?
If Jesus is “a” god, then how many gods are there in JW theology?
If Jesus is “a” god, then is he a true God or false god since the Bible says there is only one God (Isaiah 43:10; 44:6, 8)?
If Jesus is “a” god, then why does he tell people to come to him and not the Father (Matt. 11:28)?
John 8:58, “Jesus said to them, ‘Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am.”
With Exodus 3:14 “God said to Moses, I AM WHO I AM. This is what you are to say to the Israelites: I AM has sent me to you.”
Jesus uses the same title for Himself that God uses of Himself.
If you say that the verse is really “I have been,” then why did the Jews want to kill
him–especially when in John 10:30-33 they say they want to kill Him because He claimed to be God? Where and what did Jesus say to cause them to think that?
John 10:30-33, “‘I and the Father are one.‘ 31 The Jews took up stones again to stone Him. 32 Jesus answered them, ‘I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stoning Me?’ 33 The Jews answered Him, ‘For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God.'”
Re: John 10:30-33, What was Jesus saying that caused the Jews to accuse Jesus of claiming to be God? If you can’t say, then you don’t know the text or the culture well enough to address the issue of Christ’s deity.
John 20:28
In John 20:28, Thomas called Jesus God by saying to Jesus, “My Lord and My God.” If Jesus is not God, then why did Jesus not correct Thomas? Three verses later it says that this is written, so you might believe that Jesus is the son of God (John 20:31). Therefore, we can see that the term Son of God is saying that Jesus is God.
Col. 2:9, “For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form.”
Phil. 2:5-7, “Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, 6 who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7 but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men.”
Heb. 1:8, “But of the Son He [The Father] says, “Thy throne, O God, is forever and ever . . . ”
If Jesus is not God, why does God Himself call Jesus God in Heb. 1:8?
This is a quote from Psalm 45:6 which has the best translation of “Thy Throne, O God . . . “
Other Verses
John 10:30-33, “‘I and the Father are one.’ 31 The Jews took up stones again to stone Him. 32 Jesus answered them, ‘I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stoning Me?’ 33 The Jews answered Him, ‘For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God.'”
Notice the Jews said, “You being a man, make yourself out to be God.” What did Jesus say that caused the Pharisees to say that Jesus was claiming to be God in John 10:30-33? If you don’t know, then you don’t understand.
Regarding John 10:30-33, if you deny that Jesus is God in flesh, then you are agreeing with the Jews who killed Christ because they did not accept who He really was.
Col. 1:15-16, “He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. 16 For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him.”
Firstborn is a transferrable title and does not necessitate being first created. Proof of this can be seen where Manasseh is the firstborn (Gen. 41:51-52) and then his brother Ephraim is called the firstborn (Jer. 31:9).
Gen. 41:51-52, “And Joseph called the name of the first-born Manasseh: For, said he, God hath made me forget all my toil, and all my fathers house. And the name of the second called he Ephraim: For God hath made me fruitful in the land of my affliction.”
Jer. 31:9, ” . . . for I am a father to Israel, and Ephraim is My firstborn.”
1 Cor. 1:2, “To the church of God in Corinth, to those sanctified in Christ Jesus and called to be holy, together with all those everywhere who call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ their Lord and ours.”
Why is the phrase, “Call upon the name of the LORD” (Hebrew, YHWH, i.e., Psalm 116:4) used only of God in the OT and translated into the Greek in the LXX as “Call upon the name of the LORD (Greek, KURIOS),” applied to Jesus in the NT (1 Cor. 1:2) if Jesus is not God in flesh?
The LXX is the Septuagint which is the Greek translation of the Hebrew Old Testament done by Jews around 200 B.C.
Psalm 116:4, “Then I called upon the name of the Lord [YHWH]: “O Lord [YHWH], I beseech Thee, save my life!”
The literal translation of 1 Cor. 1:2 is ” . . . call upon the name of the Lord of us Jesus Christ.”
For more information, please see http://www.carm.org/jw/nameofLord.htm.
 

learner Daniel

Active Member
Fully God ?? - how on earth to you go from Jesus stating he is going about the Father's business - to Jesus claiming to be a God .. Help me to understand how this is possible in a rational world .. and what part of John is not a synoptic Gospel did you forget .. and how is it that I have already educated you in "The Logos" and explained how Jesus is the symbolic representation of God's word ... and yet you pretend not to be able to figure out John 14 "Father in Me" and why my God are you posting scripture from Phillipeans .. like Why .. Why would you do that ? I don't get how you don't get it Pillipeans is not Jesus speaking .. how is it you don't understand this by now.

What part of .. I already told you Jesus divinity was shown to be submissive to the father .. slipped through the cracks .. so why on earth are you posting verses of Jesus shown submissive to the Father .. the point of which .. the Trinity is not in the Bible .

Now -- John 8 "Son of Man" although your not really allowed to use John .. this term is used in other places that do count and so congratulations for posting something from scripture that is sensible .. as here Jesus is claiming to have the divine spark (your use of the term Fully God is strange .. the descriptive adjective makes no sense .. and is undefined) that Jesus is a God .. not Fully God .. is implied .. or at least divine .. but a lesser and subservient God .. one thing we can say for certain is that to a first century Jew .. "Son of Man" was not a human .. but a divinity who would come to judge humans at the end of the messianic age .. the apocalypse.. sitting at the right hand of the Father in Matt 25 - sheep and goats parable which I am sure you are familiar .. Jesus presented as Judge .. separating the Goats and the Sheep on the basis of "Works" .. faith having not part in the plan.

The overall moral of the story is that the NT story has more than one God in attendance .. more than two if we count Jesus as a God

If Jesus is not God, then explain . . .

  1. Why Thomas calls Jesus God in John 20:28? (Note, Thomas addresses Jesus specifically).
  2. Why does God call Jesus God in Heb. 1:8?
  3. Why does John the apostle state that Jesus was the Word which was God that became flesh (John 1:1, 14)?
  4. Why is the phrase “Call upon the name of the LORD” (Hebrew, YHWH, i.e., Psalm 116:4) used only of God on the OT and translated into Greek in the LXX as “Call upon the name of the LORD (greek, “KURIOS”) applied to Jesus in the NT (1 Cor. 1:2) if Jesus is not God in flesh?
  5. Why does the apostle John say that Jesus was ” . . . calling God His own Father, making Himself equal to God.” (John 5:18)?
  6. What did Jesus say that caused the Pharisees to claim that Jesus was making Himself out to be God (John 8:58)?
  7. How was it possible for Jesus to know all things (John 21:17)?
  8. How can Jesus know all men (John 16:30)?
  9. How can Jesus be everywhere (Matt. 28:20)?
  10. How can Jesus, the Christ, dwell in you (Col. 1:27)?
  11. How can Jesus be the exact representation of the Nature of God (Heb. 1:3)?
  12. How can Jesus be eternal (Micah 5:1-2)?
  13. How can Jesus be the one who gives eternal life (John 10:27-28)?
  14. How can He be our only Lord and Master (Jude 4)?
  15. How can Jesus be called the Mighty God (Isaiah 9:6) if there is only one God in existence (Isaiah 44:6-8; 45:5)?
  16. How can Jesus be called the Mighty God (Isaiah 9:6) and “God” also be called the Mighty God in Isaiah 10:21?
  17. How was Jesus able to raise Himself from the dead (John 2:19-21)?
  18. How can Jesus create all things (Col. 1:16-17), yet it is God who created all things by Himself (Isaiah 44:24)?
  19. How can Jesus search the hearts and minds of the people (Rev. 2:23)?
  20. Why was Jesus worshipped (Matt. 2:2, 11; 14:33; 28:9; John 9:35-38; Heb. 1:6) when He says to worship God only (Matt. 4:10)? (same Greek word for worship is used in each place.)
  21. In the OT God was seen (Exodus 6:2-3; 24:9-11; Num. 12:6-9; Acts 7:2), yet no man can see God (Exodus 33:20; John 1:18). It was not the Father that was seen in the OT (John 6:46). Who, then were they seeing? See John 8:58.
  22. Then why did Jesus claim the divine name, “I AM” for Himself in John 8:58? see Exodus 3:14.
  23. Then why did Jesus say you must honor him even as you honor the Father (John 5:23)?
  24. Then why is it that both the Father and the Son give life (John 5:21)?
  25. Then why did Jesus bear witness of Himself (John 8:18; 14:6)?
 

learner Daniel

Active Member
Fully God ?? - how on earth to you go from Jesus stating he is going about the Father's business - to Jesus claiming to be a God .. Help me to understand how this is possible in a rational world .. and what part of John is not a synoptic Gospel did you forget .. and how is it that I have already educated you in "The Logos" and explained how Jesus is the symbolic representation of God's word ... and yet you pretend not to be able to figure out John 14 "Father in Me" and why my God are you posting scripture from Phillipeans .. like Why .. Why would you do that ? I don't get how you don't get it Pillipeans is not Jesus speaking .. how is it you don't understand this by now.

What part of .. I already told you Jesus divinity was shown to be submissive to the father .. slipped through the cracks .. so why on earth are you posting verses of Jesus shown submissive to the Father .. the point of which .. the Trinity is not in the Bible .

Now -- John 8 "Son of Man" although your not really allowed to use John .. this term is used in other places that do count and so congratulations for posting something from scripture that is sensible .. as here Jesus is claiming to have the divine spark (your use of the term Fully God is strange .. the descriptive adjective makes no sense .. and is undefined) that Jesus is a God .. not Fully God .. is implied .. or at least divine .. but a lesser and subservient God .. one thing we can say for certain is that to a first century Jew .. "Son of Man" was not a human .. but a divinity who would come to judge humans at the end of the messianic age .. the apocalypse.. sitting at the right hand of the Father in Matt 25 - sheep and goats parable which I am sure you are familiar .. Jesus presented as Judge .. separating the Goats and the Sheep on the basis of "Works" .. faith having not part in the plan.

The overall moral of the story is that the NT story has more than one God in attendance .. more than two if we count Jesus as a God
Not sure who wrote Jesus did not raise in a physical body: Objections to Jesus' physical resurrection answered

John 17:3, "The only true God."



 

learner Daniel

Active Member
I don't think you know what it is you are claiming :) and how is it that you do not understand that Lord Jesus can be both obedient and disagree ? whats the problem ? you were told where Jesus disagrees at least a couple of times now ? Jesus does not want to go through with the Human Sacrifice... Jesus ends up obeying the command .. but this is not his Will .. showing us these are two separate minds .. that do not always agree .. just like another "Son of God" who is subordinate to "The Father" but does not always agree .. "Pleased to meet you .. don't forget my name" is the name of this God .. Chief God over the earth .. tester of souls .. until such time as Jesus takes over .. seated at the right hand of the Father .. until such time as the "Son of Man" come .. to give poor Sataniel long awaited and well deserved rest . babysitting these humans ..no easy task.
where did he disagree with his father? I only remember where he submitted.
 

Sargonski

Well-Known Member
where did he disagree with his father? I only remember where he submitted.

You were told this in the post you are responding to .. what part of .. Jesus does not want to go through with the sacrifice .. how did you miss this the first 3 times ? .. the fact that he submits to the will of the father does not change the fact that he does so against his will.

42 “Father, if you are willing, take[de] this cup[df] away from me. Yet not my will but yours[dg] be done.” 43 [Then an angel from heaven appeared to him and strengthened him. 44 And in his anguish[dh] he prayed more earnestly, and his sweat was like drops of blood falling to the ground.][di]

The tears of Blood is a later interpolation ... unfortunately but, it serves to highlight that Jesus really did not want to go through with it .. an angel had to come down and steady the poor Rabbi .. and then later when he cries out that God had forsaken him ... Jesus thought until the end that God would show up at some point and rescue him like was done with Issac.. remember poor Isaac Daniel .... :)
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
We all know that God is spirit.
AMP
God is spirit [the Source of life, yet invisible to mankind], and those who worship Him must worship in spirit and truth.”
AMPC
God is a Spirit (a spiritual Being) and those who worship Him must worship Him in spirit and in truth (reality).
MSG
God is sheer being itself—Spirit. Those who worship him must do it out of their very being, their spirits, their true selves, in adoration.” ........................................................................................................................................
Yes, God is a Spirit person. Good point ^ above^
John 4:23-24 worship God in both spirit and truth
According to Jesus Scripture is: religious truth - John 17:17
To worship in spirit would mean a lively worship
When we think of a pep rally we think of lively school spirit
Or even a very active horse as being high spirited
As said above ' in adoration '
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
IT was in response to what you wrote. I did not need any verses to prove God is not limited, We both know he is eternal and all powerful.
I was going from what is known about the nature of God.
I want to apologize for any misunderstanding, but I do find that God is: limited
By limited, Not in creation, but I mean that 'God can Not lie' - Titus 1:2; Hebrews 6:18 A
So, agree what is known about the nature of God
Such as: God 'has' power, God 'has' wisdom, God 'has' mercy and that God " IS " love
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
...............................................................................................................................................................................................
Face it -- not only did the Israelites believe in many Gods .. Jesus also believes in more than one God .. and that the God of Jesus " The Father who art in heavean .. Hallowed be thy name" and well .. lets face facts ... that Hallowed name is not son of God YHWH.
Rather, it was the un-faithful Israelites...... - Matthew 15:9; Isaiah 29:13
Jesus said he made his God's name known, and will make it known according to Jesus' prayer at John 17:6 A; 17:26
KJV at Psalm 83:18 shows the Tetragrammaton YHWH showing God's name in English
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
Not sure who wrote Jesus did not raise in a physical body: ...............................................................................
Jesus was Not resurrected in a physical body according to 1st Peter 3:18 B but made alive in the spirit
Pre-human heavenly Jesus who was sent to Earth was resurrected back to his original heavenly spirit body































Phil. 1:2John 1:1,14; Col. 2:9; Heb. 1:8Acts 5:3-4
Psalm 90:2Micah 5:1-2Heb. 9:14
Isaiah 64:8John 1:3; Col. 1:15-17Job 33:4, 26:13
2 Cor. 6:16Col. 1:27John 14:17; Rom. 8:11
1 John 3:20John 16:30; 21:171 Cor. 2:10-11
1 Kings 8:27Matt. 28:20Psalm 139:7-10
Jer. 17:10Rev. 2:231 Cor. 2:10
1 Thess. 1:10John 2:19, 10:17Rom. 8:11
1 Thess. 5:23Heb. 2:111 Pet. 1:2
Luke 22:42Luke 22:421 Cor. 12:11
1 Cor. 2:16 (as LORD)1 Cor. 2:16Rom. 8:27
Matt. 3:17; Luke 9:25Luke 5:20; 7:48Acts 8:29; 11:12; 13:2
John 3:16Eph. 5:25Rom. 15:30
Fellowship with1 John 1:31 Cor. 1:92 Cor. 13:14; Phil. 2:1
RELATIONSHIP WITH THE FATHER, SON, AND HOLY SPIRIT
We belong toJohn 17:9John 17:6
Savior1 Tim. 1:1; 2:3; 4:102 Tim. 1:10; Titus 1:4; 3:6
We serveMatt. 4:10Col. 3:24
Believe inJohn 14:1John 14:1
JudgesJohn 8:50John 5:21, 30
Gives joyJohn 15:11
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
God of course. So? How does that supposedly refute the Trinitarian concept? Even after repeatedly being explained, it seems that you still don't understand it.
Let me simplify it one final time: Jesus and the Holy Spirit are of God but technically are not God or there would be three gods.
THE holy spirit, then why not THE Jesus
There is No Upper-Case letter "S" at Psalm 104:30 for God's spirit

God's spirit is also genderless at Numbers 11:17,25
God and Jesus are never 'its' but God's spirit is an "it"
Just as our spirit is an "it" - Ecclesiastes 12:7 B
 

blü 2

Veteran Member
Premium Member
I mean that 'God can Not lie' - Titus 1:2; Hebrews 6:18 A
Well, [he] dang sure misspoke when [he] told Adam that if Adam ate from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, he'd die the same day. You'll recall that in this story it's the snake that speaks the truth.
 
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