Well if you are going to make a case that John the Baptist is/was greater than Jesus, you might actually be in the 0.1% because no one actually believes that
. John the Baptist said that he is not worthy to even worthy to untie Jesus' sandals (Mark 1:7). Second, Jesus did say no man born of a woman is greater than John, and that obviously doesn't apply to Jesus because Jesus transcended the virgin birth himself.
Sorry Sherm, but that Phil 2:5-9 scripture is FIRE.
I was ready to grant your point, until I read verse 17 where Jesus said that he is working too. If healing is not "work", why would he say he is working just like his Father? As both you and the context indicates, the thing in question is healing. So obviously, healing is a certain kind of work that should be distinguished from the more manual kind of labor, and apparently the Jews didn't make the distinction.
Hmm, but even as I typed the above, I still may grant your point. It could be said that we can all be "equal" to God if we to help others in their time of need, regardless if it is on the Sabbath or not. It is in this sense that we can be said to be equal to God.
The John 5 verse in question may not be Trinity Proof after all.
Well again, Phil 2:5-9 states why the Father is Greater than him. If you want to discuss Phil, we can. As far as John is concerned, that could only mean in a moral sense considering the fact that John didn't seem to have an earthly authority over anyone except maybe his own disciples.
I really couldn't tell.
I thought it was "son of a god"?
But if they were claiming him to only be "a god", and not "the God", then why would they try to stone him in the first place, when as Jesus said that according to the Law, man is called god, which is what they would have knew?
However, I completly understand where you are coming from. Correct me if I am wrong, but you are basically saying that it would be no point in Jesus mentioning the Law (Ps 82:6) since it is in a different context than what he seemingly is accused of in verse 33.
But then again, as I mentioned, if that is what Jesus was claiming, then that would not have been worthy of death, because as Jesus said, elsewhere, mere men are called "god" in other places.
It sounds as if Jesus was saying if mere man can be called gods in any sense, how much more can I be called god. That is what it sounds like to me, because he said if they can be called gods than "what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world."
Equal as far as nature, not as far as rank/position.
It is hard to get out of the Phil 2:5-9 implications, Sherm.
How about commenting on my response regarding this.
According to Peter, he knew everything (John 21:17). I mean there just isn't any reason for him to make that statement if it wasn't true.
It is all how we look at things. As believers, we know that when we pray we are in communion with God. Now, God knows everything that we are gonna say, right? But does that stop him from wanting us to communicate with him? Does not God still take in information that he already knows, despite it is nothing "new" to him? If God can get information that is not new to him, why can't Jesus get information that is not new to him.
The fact that it says God gave to him perhaps?
No because we have scriptural evidence that proves otherwise, in John 21:17 as I keep mentioning. And when I said the heirarchy, I wasn't talking about ominiscence, I was talking about the fact that it was "given" to him, just like Jesus said all power and authority was given to him. That is why we have scriptures like Phil 2:5-9, that indicate exactly why certain scriptures are stated the way that they are regarding Jesus subordination to the Father.
It can only be a contradiction if there are no plausible explanations, which they are, and which I've offered.