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The Trinity

U

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
Muffled said:
John 10:30 I and the Father are one.
context: John 10:33 The Jews answered him, For a good work we stone thee not, but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
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Did you forget the previous verse at John 10v29 ?
My Father is greater than all.....

The Father is greater.....John 14v28

Acts [12v22; 28v6 B] has the letter 'a' before the word god.
The same Greek grammar rule applies at John [10v33 B]
Who did the Jesus conclude Jesus was at John [10v36 B] ?_____________
 
Shermana

Shermana

Heretic
Muffled said:
John 10:30 I and the Father are one.

context: John 10:33 The Jews answered him, For a good work we stone thee not, but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
Click to expand...

So what does "Let them be one as we are one" mean? That the Disciples become part of the Trinity?

And John 10:33 has an Anarthrous Theon, it should read "make yourself to be a god". Otherwise, what Jesus says in 10:34 makes no sense and is out of context. If you disagree with this grammar, see Acts 12:22.
 
M

Mark2020

Well-Known Member
M

Mark2020

Well-Known Member
Shermana said:
I schooled you on that thread, your last response to me was nothing but "Nuh uh", do I need to point out your last post? http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/2623182-post55.html
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lol
You replied without even reading or understanding what the topic says.

(Do you want some quotes of your funny posts there?)

So you're saying that Acts 12:22 doesn't involve a similar Anarthrous? Can you show a version that doesn't translate it with "a god" there?>
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Still, did you even understand what I said in that topic?
Apparently not.
 
Shermana

Shermana

Heretic
Mark2020 said:
:facepalm:
I explained the grammar and gave examples and references.
You, on the other hand, replied to arguments that I didn't even give.
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Yeah that's why you totally ignored what I said about the article, and ignoring the subject of Acts 12:22 is an example.
 
Shermana

Shermana

Heretic
I mentioned Colwell because that's the only attempt (and by attempt I mean sorry attempt that is disproven by several verses and didn't exist until the 1930s) to reconcile John 1:1 on grammatical grounds, and it was mentioned with the quote of Wallace. I obviously asked you more than just if you knew what an article was, you are ignoring the actual details just like you are ignoring Acts 12:22. Just admit that your entire argument is based on a Theological presumption and move on.
 
Shermana

Shermana

Heretic
If I remember right, I said that "the god of" is not the same as "the god" and your response was "you don't know Greek". And I think also got into the difference of "Theou". I also said that John 1:18 could be read as "A god no one has seen", likewise with the "An only begotten god".

And when I said that YHWH is in fact "a god" (though the "god of the gods") as demonstrated with Nahum, your response was to laugh.

Regardless, your repeat ignoring of Acts 12:22 is telling.
 
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M

Mark2020

Well-Known Member
Shermana said:
If I remember right, I said that "the god of" is not the same as "the god" and your response was "you don't know Greek". And I think also got into the difference of "Theou". I also said that John 1:18 could be read as "A god no one has seen", likewise with the "An only begotten god".
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I know what a genitive is, but I told you this is Greek grammar, not English.
For john 1:18, I replied twice already.

Regardless, your repeat ignoring of Acts 12:22 is telling.
Click to expand...
English please, or Greek.
 
Shermana

Shermana

Heretic
Yes, and in the Greek grammar, "the god of" is not the same as "the god". Acts 12:22 clearly says "Voice of a god", not "Voice of G-d".
 
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