Shermana
Heretic
this is simular to arguing algebra with a kindergardener at this point
you wont accept common knowledge :slap:
Okay so that's a refusal to provide a source.
Thanks for playing.
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this is simular to arguing algebra with a kindergardener at this point
you wont accept common knowledge :slap:
I really wish you even read what you posted, it says absolutely nothing about El and YHWH being different beings. It's as if you forgot what you're talking. I don't deny that the Israelites fell into idolatry worshiping Ashtarah, but as any reader can note, that has nothing to do with the subject you're discussing. You're trying to prove that YHWH and El are different beings.
heres more from your boy Dever
Did God Have a Wife? - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
The core of the book lies in chapters 5 (“Archaeological Evidence for Folk Religions in Ancient Israel”, 6 (“The Goddess Asherah and Her Cult”, and 7 (“Asherah, Women’s Cults, and ‘Official Yahwism’”. These chapters describe polytheistic religion in ancient Israel,
Maybe I need to look up the word polytheism for you.
YOU CANT HIDE FROM THE POLYTHEISTIC PAST, of ancient hebrews
Are you even reading your own posts? That in NO way backs your case that "El" and YHWH to the Israelites were different beings.
I don't deny that there was Idolatry among the Israelites, neither do I deny that the Israelites were Henotheist. I am a Henotheist.
At this point you have clearly demonstrated that you don't even read what you're posting, or you forget so quickly what you're trying to disprove in the first place. Newsflash: Even the BIBLE says that the Israelites went into idolatry and worshiped other gods of their neighbors. Big shock!!
Now do you plan on actually quoting something from Dever that actually backs your specific case that YHWH and "El" are different gods in scriptural sense or do you want to keep embarassing yourself?
Okay, so I take it you are admitting that what you posted doesn't in any way back up what you're saying about El and YHWH being different beings to the Israelites (especially in the context of Psalms), nor does what I'm saying in any way clash with what you posted. And you have outright refused to demonstrate a single link showing that "Elohim" being used for angels was a "Cover-up". Now that's a conspiracy theory I don't buy into.
You're the one who said the use of "Elohim" to mean Angels was a big cover up, you're the one hawking a baseless conspiracy theory. I love a good conspiracy theory. I believe in many of them. And when I discuss them, I discuss the evidence and facts and claims about them.
But there's a reason why you refused each time to get a link to back your claim.
Now if you keep using Wikipedia as your link, and these articles on the subject I very much think were written by "liberal scholars", why don't you bother actually linking the citation so we can examine the details of the source material. These articles have talk pages with dissent like none other. We've been over this before. And the result is usually you continuing to post from the article and utterly refusing to address the issues of the talk page or the sources themselves.
oh so only liberals are allowed to post on wiki
Evidence of Israelite worship of Canaanite gods appears both in the Bible and the archaeological record. Respectful references to the goddess Asherah or her symbol, for example, as part of the worship of Yahweh, are found in the eighth century inscriptions from Kuntillet Ajrud and Khirbet el-Qom, and references to the Canaanite gods Resheph and Deber appear without criticism in the original Jewish text of Habakkuk 3:5. While traditionally these words have been understood to be either Jewish words whose meaning has been derived from characteristics of these Canaanite deities[38] or references to demons,[39] some interpret these as evidence of Israelite recognition of these gods as part of the military retinue of Yahweh.[40] The "host of heaven" is also mentioned without criticism in 1_Kings 22:19 and Zephaniah 1:5. Though the "host of heaven" has traditionally been interpreted as either the stars/heavenly bodies or the host of angels/heavenly spirits depending on the context,[41] some again have interpreted this term to refer to a pantheon of Israelite gods.[42] The god El is also continually identified with Yahweh.[43]
Israel inherited polytheism from late first-millennium Canaan
the seventy divine children or "stars of El" (including Baal, Astarte, Anat, probably Resheph, as well as the sun-goddess Shapshu and the moon-god Yerak); the head helper of the divine household, Kothar wa-Hasis; and the servants of the divine household, including the messenger-gods who would later appear as the "angels" of the Hebrew Bible.[45]
In the earliest stage Yahweh was one of the seventy children of El, each of whom was the patron deity of one of the seventy nations. This is illustrated by the Dead Sea Scrolls and Septuagint texts of Deuteronomy 32:89, in which El, as the head of the divine assembly, gives each member of the divine family a nation of his own, "according to the number of the divine sons": Israel is the portion of Yahweh.[46]
The later Masoretic text, evidently uncomfortable with the polytheism expressed by the phrase, altered it to "according to the number of the children of Israel"[47]
Between the eighth to the sixth centuries El became identified with Yahweh,
Yahweh-El became the husband of the goddess Asherah, and the other gods and the divine messengers gradually became mere expressions of Yahweh's power.[48] Yahweh is cast in the role of the Divine King ruling over all the other deities, as in Psalm 29:2, where the "sons of God" are called upon to worship Yahweh; and as Ezekiel 8-10 suggests, the Temple itself became Yahweh's palace, populated by those in his retinue.[
If one is to use the full intent of mathematical notation (including set theory) the correct notation would be 1 (is less than or equal to) 1+1+1 (which is less than or equal to 3).
If however, we use the full implications of mathematical theory as a projection of the G-dhead then we must deal with one very important notion form the ancient Hebrew description of G-d. That is the word ehad to describe the numerical oneness of G-d. If we assume the numerical singularity of ehad then the oneness of G-d becomes by definition the least common dominator of the whole. This would mean that G-d cannot be divided or differentiated into any sub persons or distinctions such as Father Son and Holy Ghost.
If in contrast, ehad is plural unity, as in marriage when a man and a woman become one flesh then ehad does not assume the number theory definition of the whole or counting numbers and cannot be use as scriptural proof that G-d is singular. The point here is that according to all possible variant readings of ehad the Biblical interpretation of one G-d is contradicted in the doctrine of the Trinity.
Zadok
dont start with conspiracy theories you will loose
Your someone who thinks tectonic plates is evil science trying ti lie to people :slap:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/El_(deity)
In the Canaanite religion, or Levantine religion as a whole, Ēl or Il was the supreme god, the father of humankind and all creatures and the husband of the goddess Asherah as recorded in the clay tablets of Ugarit (modern Rās Shamrā - Arabic: رأس شمرا‎, Syria).
Yahweh - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
As the origins of Yahweh seem to lie to the southeast of Israel, in Edom and Midian or even further south, an alternative explanation looks for its etymology in South Semitic languages like Arabic rather than in Hebrew
the same way you cannot accept tectonic plates you wont accept the family of deities worshipped by early hebrews
Except Deuteronomy and the Shema come waaaay later.As a nation what did the early Hebrews believe but what Deuteronomy [6 v4] said that their God was one. That was absolute monotheism which was a declaration of war against all polytheism.
No family of deities worshiped as there was in Egypt.
The confession of the oneness of God was a central part of the worship at the synagogue as expressed in the Shema prayer. The Shema prayer excluded the trinity, or triune of gods, as a violation of the Unity of God.
Satan tried to get Jesus to worship someone else besides Jehovah [Yahweh]
That enticement would be absurd if Jesus were part of the same God.
- Matthew 4 v 10; Deut. 6 v 13; Psalm 83 v 18
Jesus also directed non-Jews to worship YHWH, the Father, at John 4 vs 23,24.
Do you know how stupid your reasoning sounds...
So when some ''Jews'' were pagans, all ''Jews'' are/were pagans even now?
Its like saying Muslims are pagans because the Arabs before Mohammed(saws) also named there supreme-god Allah(swt) but then again Mohammed(saws) destroyed those mediators bringing them to one-ness, and each time we pray or do the testimony we have to mention the one-ness each time there is even a chapter speaking about ''Ahad''. Moses(p) taught people pure monotheism after the jews were worshipping the golden statue and before, he never said to those jews your worshipping right.
You should have researched into Paganism its not that they belief in a different god its that they use mediators between them and god.
If Judaism teaches pure monotheism (what i belief as a muslim) and can be proven by scriptual reference's ''if wanted''. Then who are you to say they are not, when you do not even comprehend the one-ness of god. :slap:
As a nation what did the early Hebrews believe but what Deuteronomy [6 v4] said that their God was one. That was absolute monotheism which was a declaration of war against all polytheism.
No family of deities worshiped as there was in Egypt.
The confession of the oneness of God was a central part of the worship at the synagogue as expressed in the Shema prayer. The Shema prayer excluded the trinity, or triune of gods, as a violation of the Unity of God.
Satan tried to get Jesus to worship someone else besides Jehovah [Yahweh]
That enticement would be absurd if Jesus were part of the same God.
- Matthew 4 v 10; Deut. 6 v 13; Psalm 83 v 18
Jesus also directed non-Jews to worship YHWH, the Father, at John 4 vs 23,24.
I will in reply in red, shortly and wont go in details because this becomes a little annoying
So what is a "person" exactly? How is it different than a manifestation in modalism? Unsurprisingly, it's the question that never gets answered by Trinitarians. It's not uncommon to see the term "person" used to describe the doctrine, but its rarer than rare to see it ever actually defined. Usually we get those "Water, ice, and steam" descriptions that are basically modalism. I think Trinitarians would be best just admitting that their doctrine and interpretations of verses are essentially Sabellianism with some Nicean wordplay tacked on, they should just join the Oneness Pentacostals, I think they have the best understanding of "Trinitarian" dogma.
As for the word "Lord", we see that the Greeks had the same habit of using the word "Lord" as we see it in English in replacement for the name, it can be difficult to determine when it applies to lower case "lord" like how David was called "Lord", and when it applies to the actual Holy name, but reading in detail, it doesn't seem Jesus ever shared the same usage of "LORD", and was only called "lord".
I challenge anyone to actually present a link that goes into detail of what "person" means without just using the term as for granted.
Also, as for Jesus being "fully divine", what does the word "Divine" actually mean? Is only The most high god (and He is called "Most high god" for a reason, because he's the highest of the gods) considered "Divine"? Are the "Angels" (called "Elohim" in the OT) not Divine? If they are, then thus it's not a problem for Jesus to be "Divine" as in "a god", a separate being, distinct from the Father, not a different "person" (whatever that actually means), but a distinct "being" altogether with a separate mind and soul altogether, but still a "divine being".
If anything the doctrine of the Trinity is based on some hollow wordsmithing, revisionist ideas of Old Israelite Theology, and twisted grammar.