Matthew 27:51-3*describes the resurrection of many godly people who exited the cemetery on Good Friday and returned to Jerusalem where they were seen by many people, earthquake and rocks breaking in half. If true, this event would have stunned all of Jerusalem, unquestionably been documented by numerous sources, as well as other gospels and in terms of shock value would have dwarfed even the resurrection of Jesus. Yet nowhere else but in Matthew does anyone speaks of this resurrection-related miracle. if its not literal then how to determine when it is... personal preference i take it..
There are only 9 resurrections mentioned in the Bible. All are documented with many witnesses. Why is this one account given only as a casual mention in relation to Jesus' execution, and only by Matthew?
I believe that the text at Matthew 27:52, 53 concerning the tombs [that] were opened as the result of an earthquake occurring at the time of Jesus death is not talking about a mass resurrection that occurred. If such an event took place, then it would have been reported by the other gospel writers, since there were witnesses.
A comparison with the texts concerning previous resurrections makes clear that these verses do not actually describe a mass resurrection at all but merely a throwing of bodies out of their tombs by the earthquake. And "they", (that is, ones who came out from among the tombs after seeing the bodies emerge) went into the city and were seen by many.
This is either a translation error, or it was the misreading of an incident that was not what many people think it was. If it was confirmed by other Bible writers, then perhaps we could give it credence in the way it is rendered, but since there is no corroboration, then perhaps it was not a mass resurrection at all.
It doesn't make Matthew or the scriptures wrong...it is just a misunderstood passage that does not alter any important Bible teaching nor does it impact at all on the veracity of the whole book.