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There is more then enough evidence to prove God exists.

Bunyip

pro scapegoat
Your friend, Bunyip is wrong. The word "slave" and "servant" are both used in the bible describing two different premises. The words are not interchangeable, therefore, they are unique in the context that they were written. Secondly, I do not read a Hebrew Bible. I read the God inspired English translation intended for my eyes.

Why make a liar of yourself mate? Slave and servant were both translated from the same Hebrew word. The paasage in Exodus clearly discusses servants who are property (slaves).

You seem to have reduced yourself to flinging paranoid bile. You are making yourself look like a fool.
 

SkepticThinker

Veteran Member
If it were to be that the slave would remain the permanent property of his/her master then that is what the scripture would have said

It says:

4 If his master gives him a wife and she bears him sons or daughters, the woman and her children shall belong to her master, and only the man shall go free.

If what you are saying is true, which it blatantly is not, then it would have read.

4 If his master gives him a wife and she bears him sons or daughters, the woman and her children shall belong to her master for life, and only the man shall go free.

It only becomes a lifelong contract if that is what the servant wants. But we are talking about servants and not slaves
You missed #5.

You also ignored the apparent fact that the wife and children have no say in the matter. What do you think is the point in stating that ONLY THE MAN SHALL GO FREE?
Yes, it is blatantly obvious that there are atheists here who are entertained by taunting Christians. But those who laugh last laugh the longest.
I could answer your question as to why God condones slavery if he actually did. No body here has demonstrated that he has, so no answer is required. Secondly, I doubt very much that anyone in the civilised world defends slavery. How you have concluded that is bewildering and no doubt a taunt is there somewhere. This discussion is not about the rights and wrongs of slavery, it is about whether God advocates it. He doesn't, end of discussion, unless you have evidence to the contrary.
Um okay. So making specific commandments about where to find slaves, how to treat them and how to trick them into making them and their families slaves for life don’t amount to the god of the Bible condoning a practice which is clearly slavery. Again, your assertion doesn’t make very much sense.
 

SkepticThinker

Veteran Member
Your friend, Bunyip, is wrong. The word "slave" and "servant" are both used in the bible describing two different premises. The words are not interchangeable, therefore, they are unique in the context that they were written. Secondly, I do not read a Hebrew Bible. I read the God inspired English translation intended for my eyes. Always best to listen to the scholars that know what they are talking about rather then those who think they know. You can distinguish between the two by the fruits they produce.

I'm forced to just repeat myself at this point, because it appears you haven't even read what I said, which was:

Besides whatever word they used, the thing that is being described is slavery. I.e. A person who is the legal property of another person and is forced to obey them.
 

Iti oj

Global warming is real and we need to act
Premium Member
You may have removed my plate from God's table, but there's always room at mine.
 

lewisnotmiller

Grand Hat
Staff member
Premium Member
The proof we have today that God exists is The Quran. Quran is a miracle from God. you probably think why the Quran is a miracle?


Why is the Qur’an a Miracle?

What makes the Qur’an a miracle, is that it is impossible for a human being to compose something like it, as it lies outside the productive capacity of the nature of the Arabic LANGUAGE. The productive capacity of nature, concerning the Arabic language, is that any grammatically sound expression of the Arabic language will always fall with-in the known Arabic literary forms of prose and poetry. All of the possible combinations of Arabic words, letters and grammatical rules have been exhausted and yet its literary form has not been matched linguistically. The Arabs, who were known to have been Arabic linguists par excellence, failed to successfully challenge the Qur’an. Forster Fitzgerald Arbuthnot, who was a notable British Orientalist and translator, states:

“…and that though several attempts have been made to produce a work equal to it as far as elegant writing is concerned, none has as yet succeeded.”[11]

The implication of this is that there is no link between the Qur’an and the Arabic language; however this seems impossible because the Qur’an is made up of the Arabic language. On the other hand, every combination of Arabic words and letters have been used to try and imitate the Qur’an. Therefore, this leaves only one conclusion; a Divine explanation is the only coherent explanation for this impossible Arabic literary form – the Qur’an. Hence, it logically follows that if the Qur’an is a literary EVENT that lies outside the productive capacity of the Arabic language, i.e. an impossibility, then by definition, it is a miracle.

The challenge in the Qur’an

In the following verses Allah has challenged the whole of mankind to try and produce a SINGLE chapter like the Qur’an. This challenge, which has remained unmet, captivated the minds of the Arabs at the time of revelat-ion. They rationally assessed that if an Arab cannot challenge the Qur’an and nor could a non-Arab, then the only source of the Qur’an is the Creator. The Qur’an states:

“If you are in doubt of what We have revealed to Our Messenger, then produce one chapter like it, call upon all your helpers, besides Allah, if you are truthful.” Surah al-Baqarah (The Heifer) 2: 23.

“Or do they say: “He (Prophet Muhammad, ) has forged it (this Qur’an)?” Nay! They believe not! Let them then produce a recitation like it (the Qur’an) if they are truthful.” Surah at-Toor (The Mount) 52: 33-34.

According to Qur’anic commentators such as Ibn Kathir, Suyuti and Ibn Abbas, these verses issue a challenge to produce a chapter that imitates the unique literary form of the Qur’an.[12] The tools needed to meet this challenge are the finite grammatical rules and the twenty eight letters that make-up the Arabic alphabet; these are independent and objective measures available to all. The fact that it has not been matched since it was revealed does not surprise scholars familiar with the Arabic language and that of the Qur’an.

The Qur’an was revealed over 1430 years ago and the challenge to produce something like the Qur’an has remained to this day. Throughout the centuries, thinkers, poets, theologians and literary critics have attempted to challenge the Qur’an. Some of these challengers in the past have included: Musaylamah; Ibn Al-Mukaffa; Yahya ibn Al-Hakam al-Ghazal; Sayyid ‘Ali Muhammad; Bassar ibn Burd.

Without going into an EXTENSIVE analysis of why Muslim and non-Muslim scholars have agreed that those who have attempted to challenge the Qur’an have failed, the following summary should suffice. Even though the challengers have had the same set of ‘tools’, which are the twenty eight Arabic letters, finite grammatical rules and the blue print of the challenge – which is the Qur’an itself; they have failed to:

1. Replicate the Qur’an’s literary form
2. Match the unique linguistic nature of the Qur’an
3. Select and arrange words like that of the Qur’an
4. Select and arrange similar grammatical particles
5. Match the Qur’an’s superior eloquence and sound
6. Equal the frequency of rhetorical devices
7. Match the level of content and informativeness
8. Equal the Qur’an’s conciseness and flexibility

There is no doubt that IF the Qur'an were the word of a human and the Prophet (p.b.u.h.), himself, who was known to the world as an illiterate one, had produced it, they would bring many Qur'ans like it and would prove that this is not the word of Allah(God) revealed to him (p.b.u.h.). In that condition, the enemies of Islam would maintain their works which would be available everywhere and in any ages so that they could publish and distribute them, even now, to defame the one genuine Qur'an, but there is none.

No human on earth have ever produced a small chapter similary to the ARABIC language of the Quran.

Speaking of the Arabic language version of the Quran in this way could be convenient (as it's more difficult for non-Arabic speakers to refute) or inconvenient (as it's more difficult for non-Arabic speakers to see the wisdom in your words).

I'm not an Arabic speaker, which makes response difficult, but there are some ways I can challenge what you say without being able to personally verify the Arabic Quran.

How would you respond to the following?

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lewisnotmiller

Grand Hat
Staff member
Premium Member
Prayers have always been answered by the influence of the Holy Ghost. The testator of all that is true. And by the power of the Holy Ghost ye may know the truth of all things.There is a very good theory, involving quantum sub-automic particles, on how he might do that, but maybe for another time.

Hmmm...Not sure I understand that. My understanding of the Trinity is not one of my strong-suits.

Yes, of course we will not see eye to eye on everything, we both sit on opposite sides of the table. But isn't that what makes debating interesting and enjoyable?

Yep! It can also make it frustrating, but I think if both sides realise they're not going to convince the other, and are just trying to make their side better understood (at least as an immediate goal) the whole process becomes a lot more interesting, and a lot less frustrating.

I am not sure how the environment was set up, the formation of the earth, that is. We are told that God organised the matter that was into our earth, however, does that mean it was a result of his hands or the Big Bang that he might have caused. I do not think it matters either way but I just do not think it is set in stone either.

Yes, he created us from the dust of the earth, however, it is more then likely that he created everything else via the process of evolution by biogenesis. That is my belief.

Yes, Redemption is the name of the game. It is the reason for our existence. To be tried and tested in the flesh and then to be held accountable for our mortal probation, to be judged from the book of life by him who is worthy to judge us.

Whilst I don't agree with any of this, it seems consistent enough to me.

It is essential for it to be consistently held to the point that no bilge pump is ever required in that boat. There can be no leaks. Complete abstinence from intervention or the boat sinks with all lives lost.

Yep, I see your point.

You may regret asking that question, as I tend to go on a bit with subjects that really interest me.

Nope. I was mentioning to someone the other day that I quite enjoy being on the boards with people who take the time to explain their points of view, even if those people can have radically different views to mine.
Not everyone thinks that way, I know, but that's how it is for me.

Interesting that you say this though. Essentially it is indeed my belief, but I need to qualify it. Not many non-believer actually know this. It is a crucial period of the Plan of Redemption consisting of many complex anomalies that were needed to make it all function correctly. In scripture we see a almost analogous story that on the surface seems straight forward and almost unnecessary in kick starting humanity. One of those complexities is that when the Garden of Eden was created it was in a state of perfection, celestialised. Nothing died and procreation was unnecessary because there was no requirement to replenish anything. Adam and Eve were created from the dust, that was without imperfections, and created as perfect being. Procreation for them was also unnecessary because they would never die. Procreation was not even known to them so they walked in their nakedness with no carnal desires for each other, as they were not carnal beings. They had no knowledge of how to procreate. God was able to freely dwell in their presence as they were like unto him, perfect. In that current state nothing would ever change and we, as spirits, would remain as we were with no means to gain a body through procreation.

God gave to Adam and Eve two commandments. One, that they should not eat from the tree of knowledge, and two, that they should go forth and multiply to replenish the earth, thereby, fulfilling Gods marvellous work and wonder to bring to pass the immortality and eternal life of man. Big problem there is that neither could be accomplished without breaking one of those commandments. Enter stage left, the facilitator, Satan, that old serpent who had been banned to dwell on earth.

Satan set about convincing the weaker of the two, Eve, to partake of the fruit because he wanted Eve to sin against God to demonstrate his influence. He thought he was successful, but, little did he know, he was playing into Gods hands, and she did eat of the fruit, making Gods second commandment possible, and then told Adam what she had done. After a big row, where Eve told Adam that he no longer showed her any affection and cares more about football then her, he had no option but to partake of the fruit as she would be in a fallen state making it impossible for him to be with her, so he had no option but to partake of the fruit at which time the fall had been set into motion. We all know what then followed, They became mortal and we're sent into the lone and dreary world to fend for themselves. The fall from perfection to mortality was complete. Humanity had been born and from that point God could not intervene, although they did hear his voice a couple of times, ordering Pizza, but did not see him.

Sorry about the length of that, it could be longer if I told it all but it is very complex and interwoven with the pre-existence and the war in heaven right up until the coming of the saviour and Armageddon. It is by no means a simple event. However, God was involved in the beginning because circumstances allowed for it. Will he be involved at the end? I don't know. Only after salvation and the Judgement day, that is for sure.

I've read it a couple of times. It's interesting to me. But how did you come to that conclusion? Is it a particular denomination of Christianity, is it your own interpretation, etc?

No, that is not my belief. I now that I am going to be seen as controversial on this point but I believe that God has the power to do anything that can be done. That does not, in my opinion, detract from his omnipotence in anyway as logic dictates that you cannot do that which cannot be done, unless you are a magician owning a hat and a white rabbit. So no, I believe that there are supernatural laws that are the same as natural laws that cannot be changed.

Does this mean that our definition of natural is too limited, then? What we see as 'natural' are merely the lesser natural things, and there are a set of greater natural things as well?
This would see God defined as a natural being, which may or may not sound blasphemous to you, not sure. That's not my intent though, just trying to understand you.

Like when a people become sufficiently wicked their destruction is assured. We are getting there.

It's a mundane question, but the definition of wickedness is oftentimes where a theoretical discussion about religion and creation becomes a more practical discussion about morals, laws and what we allow in our society.

I doubt it's possible to encapsulate what you believe about wickedness in any simple manner, and would admit it's an unfair question, but if you CAN tell me how you judge wickedness, I'd be interested.

Once the plan of Redemption was set into motion then God could not intervene as to do so would stick a Huge spanner in the works messing everything up. It sound like God has constraints but if he were capable of doing the impossible there would be no need for our mortal probation. He could have just flicked his figures and we would all be back with him having perfected bodies and minds. It is a fallacy to think that God can do something that cannot be done.

I think a God with some level of constraint (for whatever reason) fits better with the evidence before me than a God with no constraints.
I don't see evidence of God at all, to be honest (obviously given my atheism), but if there were a God he would have to be non-interventionist, or at least limited (assuming omnibenevolence).

I am sorry for the length of this but the Plan of Redemption is not a simple plan. I have skimmed the surface of it, however, the intricate details are not a requirement for salvation. Just to live a Christ like life is sufficient for everyone.

No problems with the length. Sorry it took me a bit to respond.
One last question...you mention here that living a Christ like life is sufficient...do you mean that man is judged by his works rather than his faith, or are both required?

Nice talking to you my friend.

And you.
 

Serenity7855

Lambaster of the Angry Anti-Theists
You missed #5.

No, I didn't. I answered it as follows

It only becomes a lifelong contract if that is what the servant wants. But we are talking about servants and not slaves

You also ignored the apparent fact that the wife and children have no say in the matter. What do you think is the point in stating that ONLY THE MAN SHALL GO FREE?

Which wife? The one given to him by the master or the one he brought in with him. You need to be more specific. I have covered both case scenarios, but you seemed to have missed it. Check my recent post, only it gets tedious when you have to repeatedly go over the same thing.

Um okay. So making specific commandments about where to find slaves, how to treat them and how to trick them into making them and their families slaves for life don’t amount to the god of the Bible condoning a practice which is clearly slavery. Again, your assertion doesn’t make very much sense.

No, because he did not do any of those things. Moses was making specific laws about how to treat servants. You must not listen to old Bunyip, he will lead you down the wrong track just to pee off the Christians. No one was tricking them, that is your awful spin on it, because you like to agitate. You have it all wrong, which is quite astounding as it has all been explained in detail, which could very well indicate a tad degree of trolling, on your part. Nevertheless, I have given you two dictionary definitions of "slave" and "servant". I have not given you lexicon definitions as we are discussing the bible, translated into English by the inspiration of God, so it is appropriate to use an English dictionary to define the English words that God Himself used. Please note the vast difference between the two words, and also note that both words are used in the bible in accordance to their definitions.

Slave

noun

1.(especially in the past) a person who is the legal property of another and is forced to obey them.

Servant

noun
a person who performs duties for others, especially a person employed in a house on domestic duties or as a personal attendant.
 
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Bunyip

pro scapegoat
Serenity

You are wrong. It remains a lifelong contract (slavery) for the wife and his children, but the servant can chose to become a slave or leave his family and be free. The wife and kids remain the property of the master either way.
 

Serenity7855

Lambaster of the Angry Anti-Theists
I'm forced to just repeat myself at this point, because it appears you haven't even read what I said, which was:

Besides whatever word they used, the thing that is being described is slavery. I.e. A person who is the legal property of another person and is forced to obey them.

No, I believe that I have adequately deciphered your post.

No, the thing that is being described is servants. Slavery is forced labour and servants provide paid labour, voluntarily, which is what this is. You might like for it to be slavery in order to taint the image of God so that is how you want to interpret it as, however, nobody in the last 6,000 years has been anywhere close to doing that, so what makes you think that you can convince anyone of such a misconception.
 

Serenity7855

Lambaster of the Angry Anti-Theists
Serenity

You are wrong. It remains a lifelong contract (slavery) for the wife and his children, but the servant can chose to become a slave or leave his family and be free. The wife and kids remain the property of the master either way.

It is not a lifelong contract unless the servant chooses for it to be. Are you reading Exodus 21: 2 - 6, because it sure don't sound like it.

"If his master have given him a wife, and she have born him sons or daughters; the wife and her children shall be her master's, and he shall go out by himself."

Where does it say forever. You have added it. At the point that he leaves the statement is correct as she has not done her seven years.

Only until there seven years are up. That is the law.The wife and kids remain the property of the master only until their contract comes to an end. You are speculating and then turning it into fact with you own spin.

You are also making your own interpretations on this "If his master have given him a wife" did the master go out and buy him a wife, did he have one in stock that he bought earlier, would she go out before him if she was purchased before him, did he buy her after he bought him so she would leave after him. The law applied to both men and women. The master only had permanent servants if it were their choice. Nobody was forced into being a servant, they were all volunteers and they would all be freed after their contracts were fulfilled. Unless they chose different. Read the verses, it is all there.
 
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Bunyip

pro scapegoat
It is not a lifelong contract unless the servant chooses for it to be. Are you reading Exodus 21: 2 - 6, because it sure don't sound like it.

"If his master have given him a wife, and she have born him sons or daughters; the wife and her children shall be her master's, and he shall go out by himself."

Where does it say forever. You have added it. At the point that he leaves the statement is correct as she has not done her seven years.

Only until there seven years are up. That is the law.The wife and kids remain the property of the master only until their contract comes to an end. You are speculating and then turning it into fact with you own spin.

No. Only the male has a seven year contract, the wife and kids are property. Women and their children were property and had no seven year contract.
You are also making your own interpretations on this "If his master have given him a wife" did the master go out and buy him a wife, did he have one in stock that he bought earlier, would she go out before him if she was purchased before him, did he buy her after he bought him so she would leave after him. The law applied to both men and women. The master only had permanent servants if it were their choice. Nobody was forced into being a servant, they were all volunteers and they would all be freed after their contracts were fulfilled. Unless they chose different. Read the verses, it is all there.
 
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