Vile Atheist
Loud and Obnoxious
However, you may be surprised to find out the that the presupposition of the kalam is false (and proven to be false scientifically). So it fails at the first gate. And I'll bet you want an example too...Okay. I'll give you a few.No, Kalam says that everything that began to exist has a cause. That the universe began to exist is reasonably uncontroversial, and so the natural question is what caused it to exist. On the other hand, God did not begin to exist. Thus we don't have to explain his existence in terms of anything else.
Another way to put this (got this from Plato) is that everything in the universe (the physical universe) is contingent. That is, it depends on something else for its existence and/or sustenance. Therefore, the whole universe is contingent. So how do we explain the existence of the whole chain of contingent things? What might cause this chain to continue to exist? Well, we need something noncontingent (i.e., something that doesn't itself depend on anything else for its existence) to explain the existence of the universe.
Again, I can see ways for the skeptic to get around this. The skeptic might try to argue (however implausibly) that the universe is noncontingent. I don't think that argument is convincing, but there's nothing that says it isn't possible.
Events at the atomic and subatomic levels are observed to have no evident cause. When an atom in an excited energy level drops to a lower level and emits a photon, a particle of light, we find no cause for that event. Similarly no cause is evident in the decay of the radioactive nucleus.
Theologian William Lane Craig tried to counter these examples using the idea of "probabilistic causality" - basically these events are still "caused" but not in a pre-determined manner. This defeats the kalam because by his own admission, because he's shown that the "cause" is an accidental, spontaneous one (not predetermined). He has destroyed his own argument for predetermined creation.
If the first premise of the kalam is wrong, it follows that the rest is too because the rest of the kalam is dependent on the assumption that the first premise (everything that began to exist has a cause) is correct.
Whoa, Johnny. Back 'er up there.Well if my argument is approximately right, God is the source of our sense of right and wrong. If Christianity is true, God created us in his image, and it is because we bear his image we have access to moral truths. However, as it happens, our divine sense (that which we use to know truths about God and morality) is damaged through sin. As a result, we don't know God and morality as we ought. Thus we have that deplorable blooming, buzzing confusion about ethics, not to mention umpteen religions. So I don't have to acknowledge the existence of other gods to explain other moral codes. I can write it all off as confusion created by sin.
Now there are so many things I see wrong with this I don't know where to start. Let's start with the most glaring problem.
I see a huge bout of circular logic here.
We sin because we don't follow God's moral code. We don't follow God's moral code because we sin. [And this sin is the source of corruption that hinders our ability to follow God's moral code]. Is this what you mean to tell me? Maybe I'm just misunderstanding you. Could you re-word that less...circularly?
Furthermore, how do you explain how most cultures and religions have the same basic, core philosophies? We do not know of any societies where bravery is despised and cowardice is considered a virture. Nor do we know of any that consider generosity a vice and ingratitude a virtue.
There are details that differ due to culture, and religion (which is what I was referring to earlier). But the basic core values are the same across the board. And if you want a name to back up that assertion, look up the work of anthropologist Solomon Asch.
If morality only comes from following/obeying God, why do the godless have this innate morality? I'll tell you why. It doesn't take divine revelation to demonstrate how stealing from your own community is immoral because it's quite easy to imagine a society where everyone stole from each other. It doesn't take divine revelation to demonstrate how lying is immoral as we can picture a society where lying is the norm (communication would be impossible!).
These moral mechanisms are social constructs that developed through evolution. Of course everyone doesn't agree on every little moral issue. However, they agree on the basic core values.
Both sides of the abortion debate agree that murder is wrong. However the debate is not about whether or not murder is wrong, but about whether or not a fetus is alive and if so, when, and even without brain activity, is it okay to kill a non-sentient entity. It's a debate about the difference between life and sentience. We might, for example, differ on this issue. But we both agree unequivocally that murder is wrong.
We already have morality innate to us and Christians (like other theists) merely project their current moral stature onto their scriptures and attempt to justify them that way. Some Christians are (rightfully, even if they don't care to explicitly admit it) ashamed when they read disgusting Deuteronomy and attempt to justify it using "mistranslations" or "out of context!" or just try to ignore it completely. This is why some liberal Christians attempt to justify passages about homosexuality being an abomination with their own (already evolutionarily developed) innate morality to twist the quote into something more positive.
Of course, I realize not all Christians do this.
So thus, you must explain the differences due to religion/culture in moral codes and also explain the similarities. Why do people who reject God and the Bible (like me, for example) have this innate morality?
You've said the differences come from confusion of sin. It isn't that satisfactory of an argument, but I'm willing to try and see things your way and accept it - at least for the sake of argument. Now what about the similarities?
*sigh*This misunderstands the case. Why should we expect every important Roman decree to have survived the ravages of time? And the hand-waving to "conflicts in the bible" is, to say the least, uninformative. Suffice to say that you have a lot of catching up to do on such things as historiography.
We have inane lists from the Roman Empire. Trivial little documents. We're talking about an undertaking that would have moved a large amount of people (quite unnecessarily, too). It wouldn't simply be written in one source (the only source to mention it is the Bible). We would have had many, many other sources mention this because the event is a significant one. It's highly unlikely it was "lost to time".
Furthermore, if you want an example of my "hand-waving"...
Biblical prophecies about Jesus:
"But you, O Bethlehem Eph'rathah, who are little among the clans of Judah, from you shall come forth for me one who is to be ruler in Israel whose origin is from old, from ancient days" (Mic. 5:2, RSV)
- No reason (outside the New Testament) to believe that Jesus was born in Bethlehem, following from my earlier mention of taxation in the Roman Empire and how there is no historical record of it. There was a census recorded in Judea, but not Galilee. But this was in 6-7 CE. That conflicts with Jesus being alive in the days of Herod who died in 4 BCE. One source does not confirm a historical event.
- Jesus was never ruler of Israel.
- Jesus was never called "Immanuel", either, as Isaiah 7:14 predicted.
One of the most important prophecies has not been fulfilled. In Matthew, Mark, and Luke, Jesus tells his followers that he'll return and establish his kingdom in a generation before the listeners die. 2000 years later.....where is this kingdom?
There is no Roman record to verify Jesus was ever tried by Pontius Pilate nor executed - even by crucifixion. These are events that would have easily been recorded in Roman documents. Yet not a trace of them. Not a single piece of history concurring with the Biblical account of Jesus.
What were you saying again about "hand-waving"?
Your argument for the lack of historical support for the story of Jesus seems to be that "everything probably wasn't recorded". I agree that absence of evidence is not evidence of absence. If I believed that, I would claim God doesn't exist with 100% certainty. But there isn't a single detail about the story of Jesus that can be checked against known historical events. Care to provide at least one detail that has been confirmed historically?Again, this doesn't show a flaw in the biblical history. Why should we expect Philo or Josephus to have recorded every atrocity by every tyrant? Why should the fact that Philo and Josephus (more accurately, those histories we have from them that have survived the ravages of time) don't record these events to be evidence that they didn't happen? That's just weird.
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