• Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:
    • Reply to discussions and create your own threads.
    • Our modern chat room. No add-ons or extensions required, just login and start chatting!
    • Access to private conversations with other members.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!

Was Judas Iscariot a historical figure?

Was there really a Judas?

  • Yes, we can be reasonably sure there was a Judas.

    Votes: 9 29.0%
  • There was probably a Judas, but we cannot be certain.

    Votes: 9 29.0%
  • There is no way to know about a minor character so long ago.

    Votes: 3 9.7%
  • He is probably fictional, but we cannot be certain.

    Votes: 2 6.5%
  • We can be reasonably certain he is a made up character.

    Votes: 8 25.8%

  • Total voters
    31

AmbiguousGuy

Well-Known Member
I prefer that translation as that is what the Greek states. I do find it interesting that both you and Ambiguous have implied that such a translation is motivated by the "holy spirit" or beliefs; however, it is quite clear that your translation is motivated by your own personal beliefs, and not actual knowledge of the Greek.

Actually I've attempted no translation at all. It would be easy enough to do with my background in linguistics -- to study the situation -- but I don't think about language the same as you apparently do.

I've engaged lots of intelliigent people in very close dialogue, but who entirely miss the meaning of my words even though we speak the same language and live in the same culture and they are able to ask me clarifying questions about my meaning. Still they miss my meaning. They take sarcasm as straight talk. They miss a literary reference (as we all sometimes do) which changes my whole meaning. Their own biases contort my meaning in various directions. For example, they hear me say 'God' and they assume I am talking about a god who matches their own concept.

So I think it's a fundamental misconception of language to think that we can reliably suss out the meanings of people who 1) we don't know and can't engage in dialogue and 2) who lived thousands of years ago in a foreign culture and wrote in a foreign, dead language and 3) whose purpose in writing we can't know and 4) whose words may not even be theirs, considering the history of (theological) copying, recopying, translating, retranslating, etc....

Meaning doesn't reside in dictionaries of ancient Greek. It resides within the mind of the guy is trying to communicate. That's my view anyway.

For all you know, Paul could have been using sarcasm in that spot. Or he could have been concocting stuff on the fly. Or he could have been speaking in the most metaphorical way.

But I agree with Steeltoes that if your translation pleases you, well... go with it.
 

oldbadger

Skanky Old Mongrel!
Probably not Hebrew at all. Hebrew was reserved more for scholarly work. Aramaic was the language that would have generally been spoken. However, Greek also would have been spoken. In fact, Greek was used throughout the kingdom, and was important for many Jews.
Do you believe that the peasants spoke Greek? The Oral tradition was most probably carried through in Aramaic, thence on to Greek. I wrote Hebrew for Greek in my last post, I'm sorry about that.

Paul, being one of the earliest missionaries, spread the tradition in Greek. He also received earlier tradition which appears to have been in Greek as well. The oral tradition then also would have been carried in Greek.
I'm not the only person who believes that Paul was a treacherous, contract breaking,, manipulating, bullying monster, who picked up the life of a beautiful person and then adjusted it all into.... Roman Catholicism. He not only spread his own version of the tradition, he added all kinds of nonsense to it. No wonder he had confrontations with Cephas (and others?).

However, none of that really matters as the story itself was written in Greek. The authors were writing in Greek, and thinking in Greek. The possible Aramaic that laid behind the tradition doesn't really matter as the author wasn't using Aramaic. He also was not translating some other story into Greek, but instead was creating these records in Greek for his work. The Greek then is what matters here, as the story itself is in Greek and was intended to be understood in Greek.
You wrote:- none of that really matters........ The possible Aramaic that laid behind the tradition doesn't really matter,......creating these records...... You wrote it.

Yet there is no evidence that such a thing happened. There is no suggestion that Jesus was swimming in a lake. More so, you haven't shown that it would be amazing to see someone swim. Nor have you shown how it could make anyone believe that he was special. Swimming would not have been something special.
I think it was most unusual. And the overhand crawl would have been amazing, and the Aramaic and Hebrew words for walk have other meanings, including 'go' (He went out to them, 'swim' etc etc Wander is another.

More so, the statement that the disciples make, that they were fearful that Jesus was a ghost, does not make sense if he was just swimming.
Since you and I do not share their huge levels of superstition, how could we possibly empathise?

That is not what the story relates. What you are doing right now is making things up to fit your view point. The story states clearly that Peter stood on the water, and walked out to meet Jesus. He did not say " I must try that," but instead, "if it is you Lord, command me to come out."
I am proposing a more possible report. I propose that it was the evangelists that made things up.

Peter wasn't trying to try anything.
There is absolutely no ancient records that state this. You can't just make up things and state that they are facts.
Mark does not mention Peter's attempt. Matthew 14;29 suggests an attempt. Luke: I can't see anything. ?? He attempted it, couldn't do it, this fits for swimming....

So basically, because some people drowned while being in the water, they were afraid or unable to swim? That doesn't make sense. Do you have any historical support for this?
Try hundreds......thousand even, over the years. Most seamen did not swim, which is true of the Royal Navy as well. When I was a kid I used to listen to the old watermen, that's up to 60 years ago (I would have been 5 then), but I will research the www and see what pops up. It sounds crazy doesn't it? But it's the simple truth that seamen swimmers were in the minority.

How can you say that the oral tradition was manipulated if you can't point to the oral tradition? Making things up is not historical research.
I feel that it is reasonable to suggest that the oral tradition is within some of the gospel reports, but manipulated.
There are many accusations about evangelists making things up, and manipulating the writings, not only of the Gospels, but of works such as those of Josephus. There are scholars who suggest this...... I'm waving the scholar flag here.:D
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
Do you believe that the peasants spoke Greek? The Oral tradition was most probably carried through in Aramaic, thence on to Greek. I wrote Hebrew for Greek in my last post, I'm sorry about that.
Yes, I think even the "peasants" spoke Greek. For someone in business (doing whatever) it would have been the language of trade and commerce. If they expected to make a living, outside of their village, it would have been almost necessary.
I'm not the only person who believes that Paul was a treacherous, contract breaking,, manipulating, bullying monster, who picked up the life of a beautiful person and then adjusted it all into.... Roman Catholicism. He not only spread his own version of the tradition, he added all kinds of nonsense to it. No wonder he had confrontations with Cephas (and others?).
The confrontations with Cephas really aren't a good example of what you are suggesting. The confrontations themselves really are not major, nor were they about Paul's character. Instead, they were about ideas within faith. This was common within Judaism, as there were many interfaith disagreements and debates.

Also, Paul was a Jew, and died a Jew. He had nothing to do with Roman Catholicism, and in fact, was largely ignored. It was not until Augustine that Paul found someone who was interested in interpreting Paul (with the exception of Marcion).

More so, from what we are left with, Paul submitted to the Jerusalem church. His ideas were still within Judaism, and he was seen as a Jew by others. He was even seen in a good light by the disciples and brother of Jesus.

The view you hold is one that died out within scholarship, as soon as people began actually researching Paul for who he was. You can have as much distrust for him as you want, but it does not change the fact that he was an early spreader of the tradition, and did so in Greek, within a few years after the death of Jesus. The message he also received also appears to have been in Greek. So the oral tradition had to have been in Greek from an early time.
You wrote:- none of that really matters........ The possible Aramaic that laid behind the tradition doesn't really matter,......creating these records...... You wrote it.
In the case of interpreting and translating Greek scripture, the Aramaic (if there was any Aramaic that laid behind the tradition) does not matter. The Greek matter. The simple fact is that we have no idea what Aramaic word would have been used, that could have been translated to the Greek word. There is not just one Aramaic word that could have been picked from.
I think it was most unusual. And the overhand crawl would have been amazing, and the Aramaic and Hebrew words for walk have other meanings, including 'go' (He went out to them, 'swim' etc etc Wander is another.
Do you have any evidence that the Aramaic word for walk can also mean swim? Can you provide a source? More so, can you provide evidence that there is only one Aramaic or Hebrew word for walk? And then can you provide any evidence that this word was then translated into Greek?

The problem with your view is that it simply doesn't hold up when one realizes that we are not dealing with Aramaic, but with Greek. The Greek clearly states that Jesus walked on the water, not swam.
Since you and I do not share their huge levels of superstition, how could we possibly empathise?
That is nothing more than a cop out. It doesn't take much to see that they would not have been frightened, as if they saw a ghost, because someone was swimming. People swimming would not have been foreign to them. Someone walking on water, would be frightening though.
I am proposing a more possible report. I propose that it was the evangelists that made things up.
You are proposing something that simply doesn't have any evidence for it. Instead, you are making things up and trying to pass it off as an actual report. Sure, the evangelists probably made somethings up. If we are to believe this, then why assume there is any oral tradition behind this story then? Would it not be easier to assume that the evangelists made up the entire story of Jesus walking on water?
Mark does not mention Peter's attempt. Matthew 14;29 suggests an attempt. Luke: I can't see anything. ?? He attempted it, couldn't do it, this fits for swimming....
Except that it doesn't. It clearly state that Peter stood on the water, and walked on the water. It does not state he swam at all.
Try hundreds......thousand even, over the years. Most seamen did not swim, which is true of the Royal Navy as well. When I was a kid I used to listen to the old watermen, that's up to 60 years ago (I would have been 5 then), but I will research the www and see what pops up. It sounds crazy doesn't it? But it's the simple truth that seamen swimmers were in the minority.
And even experienced swimmer drown. The fact that they drown doesn't mean they can't swim. It means that they drowned for one reason or another.
I feel that it is reasonable to suggest that the oral tradition is within some of the gospel reports, but manipulated.
There are many accusations about evangelists making things up, and manipulating the writings, not only of the Gospels, but of works such as those of Josephus. There are scholars who suggest this...... I'm waving the scholar flag here.:D
So then you pick and choose what you want to believe based on preconceived notions? Yes, scholars agree that there is an oral tradition, and it may be able to be picked out. However, what they don't do is make things up that is not stated in any record.
 

Brickjectivity

Veteran Member
Staff member
Premium Member
OldBadger said:
Hi Bricks.....thanks for that proposal. Tell me...... on a scale of 1-10, how happy are you with that proposal that you have put forward?

No matter how I try, I find it very difficult to unite or merge those two reports. One tells us that Judas threw the money down, another that he spent it. One tells us of his hanging, another of his accident. etc etc A detached jury would reject the possibility, I reckon. But then, I think I trust Matthew's more than Luke's accounts..... there you go, I'm cherry picking accounts. Difficult, isn't it?
For myself I'm 80% comfortable with it, but I don't expect other people to be. I'm used to being out there on my own and making changes when I'm wrong. If I'm wrong, so what? Nevertheless I'm fairly certain that I'm right on this one.
 

steeltoes

Junior member
I prefer that translation as that is what the Greek states. I do find it interesting that both you and Ambiguous have implied that such a translation is motivated by the "holy spirit" or beliefs; however, it is quite clear that your translation is motivated by your own personal beliefs, and not actual knowledge of the Greek.

Paul uses the word in Romans where it is translated to mean "deliver up." There is no reason why it can't have the same meaning and usage in Corinthians, unless of course you prefer "betrayed" because it suits your agenda as it provides for a Judas type inference even though there isn't one.
 

Sha'irullah

رسول الآلهة
Paul mentions a betrayer before the Gospels do. Also, just because the story of Judas may resemble the story of Loki, or fall into the deceiver type figure, that does not mean one can rule it out. There are many stories of actual people being betrayed.

I am not ruling it out because of its likeness of Loki or any other character. I am ruling it out on the basis of the historicity of the Hebrew Bible and Gospels collectively which hold no historical validation of their specific events.
 

oldbadger

Skanky Old Mongrel!
Except that it doesn't. It clearly state that Peter stood on the water, and walked on the water. It does not state he swam at all.
Hello again.....

I think it's time to rest my writing and leave it up to any other readers to decide for themselves if my points might be correct. I don't believe that I can alter your point of view.

But one last fling. You have argued that most Galilean fishermen would have been swimmers. Yes? Just read the report! (clearly written)
Matthew 14;30 But when he saw the wind he was afraid, and, beginning to sink, cried out, 'Lord, save me!'.

So..... Cephas could not swim. If he could swim, he would have just swam back to the boat. 'Lord....Save me!'


In a real debate, with an audience, I believe that you would lose this one.
 

Brickjectivity

Veteran Member
Staff member
Premium Member
Old Badger said:
Hello again.....

I think it's time to rest my writing and leave it up to any other readers to decide for themselves if my points might be correct. I don't believe that I can alter your point of view.

But one last fling. You have argued that most Galilean fishermen would have been swimmers. Yes? Just read the report! (clearly written)
Matthew 14;30 But when he saw the wind he was afraid, and, beginning to sink, cried out, 'Lord, save me!'.

So..... Cephas could not swim. If he could swim, he would have just swam back to the boat. 'Lord....Save me!'


In a real debate, with an audience, I believe that you would lose this one.
That sounds plausible. There is a style of swimming that is called Treading Water.
 

outhouse

Atheistically
Hello again.....

I think it's time to rest my writing and leave it up to any other readers to decide for themselves if my points might be correct. I don't believe that I can alter your point of view.

But one last fling. You have argued that most Galilean fishermen would have been swimmers. Yes? Just read the report! (clearly written)
Matthew 14;30 But when he saw the wind he was afraid, and, beginning to sink, cried out, 'Lord, save me!'.

So..... Cephas could not swim. If he could swim, he would have just swam back to the boat. 'Lord....Save me!'

In a real debate, with an audience, I believe that you would lose this one.


I dont think so bud.

You dont see this as a literary creation so that Jesus could be the saviour?

If thi shad been a historical event, the author would have been far removed from this to know such detail with credibility.
 

oldbadger

Skanky Old Mongrel!
I dont think so bud.

You dont see this as a literary creation so that Jesus could be the saviour?

If thi shad been a historical event, the author would have been far removed from this to know such detail with credibility.

Hi again.... outhouse....

I believe that much of the ET was written from the oral trad stories passed along, so I am inclined to believe that this was exaggerated from truth. Obviously I can't prove that, but it's how I'm seeing a lot of the synoptic stories.

So, although I'm sure that there was much creative writing, the authors seem to have wanted to create from the passed word, rather than from the atmosphere. The OT manipulation is the exception to this.

Question :- Is this one dragged from the OT?
 

outhouse

Atheistically
Hi again.... outhouse....

I believe that much of the ET was written from the oral trad stories passed along, so I am inclined to believe that this was exaggerated from truth. Obviously I can't prove that, but it's how I'm seeing a lot of the synoptic stories.

So, although I'm sure that there was much creative writing, the authors seem to have wanted to create from the passed word, rather than from the atmosphere. The OT manipulation is the exception to this.

Question :- Is this one dragged from the OT?

I dont know, I have not researched it.

The fact it is a miraculous retelling, for me gives more weigt to a literary creation.
 

oldbadger

Skanky Old Mongrel!
I dont know, I have not researched it.

The fact it is a miraculous retelling, for me gives more weigt to a literary creation.

OK..... Like I say, I'm strong on truth magnified through hyperbole into miraculous. Such adjustments have extended to Josephus..... well...... frills!

But I feel confident that Yeshua was a regular supplier to the fishing crews before his ministry, and that the majority of his disciples had fisheries connections, which puts him on and around the Lake quite a lot.

Which leads me to say that I can't figure out how Judas Iscariot came into the picture, whether via JtB, with Simon the Zealot, through the fishing community,... or what. I know G.John (?) put him with the group's money bag, but I can't really figure what trade either.
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
Hello again.....

I think it's time to rest my writing and leave it up to any other readers to decide for themselves if my points might be correct. I don't believe that I can alter your point of view.

But one last fling. You have argued that most Galilean fishermen would have been swimmers. Yes? Just read the report! (clearly written)
Matthew 14;30 But when he saw the wind he was afraid, and, beginning to sink, cried out, 'Lord, save me!'.

So..... Cephas could not swim. If he could swim, he would have just swam back to the boat. 'Lord....Save me!'


In a real debate, with an audience, I believe that you would lose this one.
You can alter my point of view, if you can provide the evidence to back your view. If you can show that you are not just making things up, then it is more likely that I will see what you are saying is credible, and alter my view accordingly. The problem is that you are making these statements without support, and without what I see as logic.

As for Cephas not being able to swim, there is a problem there. The problem is that you took the story out of context. At the time in which this event happened, it is said to have been storming. Even the best swimmers have troubles when it is storming (and according to this story it was a significant storm). The fact that he was drowning does not suggest that he couldn't swim, but that he couldn't swim in rough waters during a storm. You need the entire context.

And again, we have to deal with the Greek, not Aramaic or Hebrew. The story is in Greek.
 

oldbadger

Skanky Old Mongrel!
I dont know, I have not researched it.

The fact it is a miraculous retelling, for me gives more weigt to a literary creation.

Hi....

Have a look at this. It is possible that just about anything can be dragged out of the OT to support the argument that the Gospel stories have been plagiarized from the OT.

Extract from psalms
{138:7} Though I walk in the midst of trouble, thou wilt revive me:
thou shalt stretch forth thine hand ...... and thy right hand shall save me.

Extract from Matthew
.....tossed with waves.... Jesus ......walking on the sea.
And ... Peter ......beginning to sink, he cried, saying, Lord, save me.
And immediately Jesus stretched forth [his] hand, and caught him,

I don't think this is a case of Outhouse-1 Old-B-0, rather that anybody can find most anything in the OT to mirror anything in the NT.
 

oldbadger

Skanky Old Mongrel!
As for Cephas not being able to swim, there is a problem there. The problem is that you took the story out of context. At the time in which this event happened, it is said to have been storming. Even the best swimmers have troubles when it is storming (and according to this story it was a significant storm). The fact that he was drowning does not suggest that he couldn't swim, but that he couldn't swim in rough waters during a storm. You need the entire context.

You are wrong here. It was not storming.
In Mark's account the wind was 'against' them, so they could not make way into it under sail. They were rowing, 'straining at the oars'. If it was storming they would not have attempted this.
In Matthew's account the boat was buffeted by waves because the wind was against it. This does not mean 'storming', it means that the waves were splashing up against the boat's bows as they tried to row it straight to windward.
Some people say that Matthew used Mark's accounts, maybe he did, and added frills to them.... who knows?
Anyway, progress would have been slow. But to a powerful swimmer this would not cause too much trouble.

There's a man lived 100yards from us who was a Navy clearance diver, and years ago when I used to row out to the old forts in the Thames Estuary (5 and 7 miles out) I would sometimes see him swimming out there. When asked, he explained that he felt at peace out there. That this was dangerous was ignored.....clearance divers have the most dangerous job in the navy anyway. If I'm right, Yeshu could have swum the width of the lake, quite easily.


And again, we have to deal with the Greek, not Aramaic or Hebrew. The story is in Greek.
Wrong. We have to deal with the Aramaic and Hebrew, because this was how the peasants passed the story up the line. Then it was taken and (one could argue) manipulated.....

Or.... are you suggesting that the working peasants of Galilee could speak Aramaic, Hebrew and Greek? Quite an achievement for poor working classes.
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
You are wrong here. It was not storming.
In Mark's account the wind was 'against' them, so they could not make way into it under sail. They were rowing, 'straining at the oars'. If it was storming they would not have attempted this.
In Matthew's account the boat was buffeted by waves because the wind was against it. This does not mean 'storming', it means that the waves were splashing up against the boat's bows as they tried to row it straight to windward.
Some people say that Matthew used Mark's accounts, maybe he did, and added frills to them.... who knows?
Anyway, progress would have been slow. But to a powerful swimmer this would not cause too much trouble.

There's a man lived 100yards from us who was a Navy clearance diver, and years ago when I used to row out to the old forts in the Thames Estuary (5 and 7 miles out) I would sometimes see him swimming out there. When asked, he explained that he felt at peace out there. That this was dangerous was ignored.....clearance divers have the most dangerous job in the navy anyway. If I'm right, Yeshu could have swum the width of the lake, quite easily.
While the story does not state specifically that it was a storm, that is what is implied. The wind is the reason why Peter became scared, which implies that it was considerable. The fact that it was considered a miracle that the wind died down once Jesus entered the boat also shows that it was not just normal wind.

The story states clearly that Jesus walked on the water. It states that Peter walked on the water. There is no suggestion that Jesus was swimming. The only thing you can provide is a possible connection that the Aramaic and Hebrew word for walk can mean swim (yet, you haven't shown that to be true. You have shown no evidence of your knowledge of Hebrew or Aramaic here).

The fact that the story states that Jesus reached out and caught Peter also suggests a standing position, thus supporting the reading that Jesus was walking on water.

Really, you have done nothing to support your position, and are in fact just making things up to fit your ideology. If you want to change a person's view, you need to actually support your position with real information. You have not done that.


Wrong. We have to deal with the Aramaic and Hebrew, because this was how the peasants passed the story up the line. Then it was taken and (one could argue) manipulated.....

Or.... are you suggesting that the working peasants of Galilee could speak Aramaic, Hebrew and Greek? Quite an achievement for poor working classes.
You haven't shown that the story was passed down in Aramaic and Hebrew. First off, Hebrew was not common. It was not the generally spoken language, and most probably couldn't understand it anyways. Aramaic was the common language in Palestine. However, Greek was also common, and was the lingua franca of the empire. There is evidence it was used throughout Palestine, as there have been found public Greek inscriptions throughout. Even at Qumran, there were Greek documents found within the rest of the religious writings. In addition, since Greek was the lingua franca, it was also the language used for commerce. To do business, it would have been necessary to use Greek.

More so, it is clear that the tradition passed on in Greek from an early time. Paul, who began his ministry shortly after the death of Jesus, did so in Greek. In addition, one can see that Paul also relies on older tradition that was passed on to him (as he specifically states). This tradition also appears to have been circulated in Greek. Thus, there is no denying that the tradition circulated in Greek from a very early time.

Finally, there is no evidence that this story circulated in Aramaic anyway (again, most did not know Hebrew). For your position to work, you have to show why there is a reason to believe that it was first recorded in Aramaic (either in written or oral form). Yet, there is none.
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
I am not ruling it out because of its likeness of Loki or any other character. I am ruling it out on the basis of the historicity of the Hebrew Bible and Gospels collectively which hold no historical validation of their specific events.
That isn't really fair though. You are taking an entire collection of works, and are ruling them all out simply because they are put into a collection. That is ridiculous.

There is historical validation for much of the Bible. Yes, there are books that are less historical than others, and some that don't deal with history at all (that is something many don't seem to understand), but one can judge the entire collection based on those individual books. Each work has to be judged based on it's own merits, and not the merits of some other work.
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
Paul uses the word in Romans where it is translated to mean "deliver up." There is no reason why it can't have the same meaning and usage in Corinthians, unless of course you prefer "betrayed" because it suits your agenda as it provides for a Judas type inference even though there isn't one.
Or, based on the actual Greek, betrayed is the best translation. Even delivered up, in the context of Corinthians, implies a betrayal.

The problem with looking up a Greek word, and finding a meaning is that you don't actually understand why it has that meaning. As with nearly any other language, words can have multiple meanings, often dictated by the context in which they are in.
 

Sha'irullah

رسول الآلهة
That isn't really fair though. You are taking an entire collection of works, and are ruling them all out simply because they are put into a collection. That is ridiculous.

Again, that is not how I ruled out the historicity of the Bible. Please read my previous post.
If the majority of the chapters have no basis for historical acceptance then why should the other 20% be assumed to have historical facts.

There is historical validation for much of the Bible. Yes, there are books that are less historical than others, and some that don't deal with history at all (that is something many don't seem to understand), but one can judge the entire collection based on those individual books. Each work has to be judged based on it's own merits, and not the merits of some other work.

This is as untruthful as it gets, the majority of the Bible has no historical relevance whatsoever. Portions of it could have happened or not but nobody has brought proof of it.

There is only 1 mentioning of King David outside of the Bible for example and it is only on a vague tablet.

The vast majority of the books in the Bible hold no historicity including the Tawrah, Gospels, Revelations, and the minor prophetic ramblings i the end of the Tanakh. Job, Ruth and the book of Daniel are also ruled out.


Just because there are historical figures within the Bible does not make it historic. It is called "faction" of "Fake-Fiction". If you believe the Bible is historical in the details of the events described then you should also believe X-men First class and the conspiracy of the US government to hide Mutants and that the Cuban Missile Crisis was ended thanks to a telepathic bald man.
 
Last edited:
Top