Christ explicitly says that the doers of Lawlessness will be rejected.
Christ himself, John, and Paul, all define for us what" lawlessness" is - and it doesn't mean what you think it means.
I showed you how Jesus defined it for us two pages ago. You're welcome to try to disprove that using scripture.
http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/religious-debates/142917-st-paul-liar-deceiver-31.html
I defined it for you using John's words on the last page. You're welcome to try to disprove that by using scripture.
http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/religious-debates/142917-st-paul-liar-deceiver-32.html
Paul's expounding on lawfulness and lawlessness in Christ is everywhere in his writings (particularly Romans and Galatians), and none of what He said contradicts what Jesus or the other apostles taught.
You're welcome to try to show a conflict in what Paul taught versus what Jesus taught using scripture.
If you want to define what it is to be lawful, you have to look at how Christ actually defined lawfullness/righteousness and lawlessness/disobedience.
Christ defined lawfulness is much more strict terms than even the mosaic covenant does, as a state of perfection in both thought and deed (Matthew 5). And He told you that the only way you'll obey it is by abiding in Him, with His spirit abiding in you (John 15, Matthew 7).
To say he meant some other kind of "lawlessness" is highly unlikely since it entails that he was using language that the Jews would have no idea of what he was referring to.
The Hebrew word for Torah means instruction recieved from God.
The Hebrew concept of Torah is much larger than merely the mosaic regulations.
The mosaic covenant was Torah for a particular group as part of that covenant.
But God made a new covenant through Christ, and His Torah comes through His Spirit directly to our hearts if we are open and willing to recieve it (Matthew 26, Jeremiah 31).
Matthew 7 links those who are lawless with those who did not abide in Christ to bear righteous fruit (the fruit of love).
Lawlessness is defined by Jesus in John 15 as disobedience.
Obedience is defined as love in John 15.
Disobeying an instruction from God is lawlessness.
And His instruction, through Christ, is that you love.
He instructed you to love, and to achieve that He says you need to abide in Him from a position of obedience to the leading of His Spirit (John 15).
Because from that position of spiritual unity you will bear the fruit of righteousness (selfless love), with the law written on your heart and mind, having no need for the fence of the mosaic regulations to protect you from sin and error, because the Holy Spirit Himself will convict you of sin and empower you to walk righteously (Jeremiah 31).
He then goes on to define what He means by "these" commandments, by explaining the Spirit behind the law, which can be summed up as perfect love like the Father.So you'd be incorrect there. With that said, he also says that those who "break and teach to break the least of the commandments will be called the least in the kingdom".
This fits right in with what Jesus tells us to do elsewhere. He only ever gave one commandment to us: Love.
In order to do that He tells us that we need to believe and abide.
He doesn't tell us to observe the mosaic regulations to achieve His commandment.
Also, the whole moral of the story of the Rich man and Lazarus was to say that those who ignore "Moses and the prophets" will burn in hell.
I already refuted both of those assertions, in detail, about 10 pages ago in this thread.Acts 21 explicitly says that James accosted Paul on a rumor that he was teaching the Jews to not obey the Law of Moses.
I welcome you to read my response here, and respond to them:
http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/religious-debates/142917-st-paul-liar-deceiver-24.html
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