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Was St. Paul a liar and deceiver?

Rise

Well-Known Member
Christ explicitly says that the doers of Lawlessness will be rejected.

Christ himself, John, and Paul, all define for us what" lawlessness" is - and it doesn't mean what you think it means.

I showed you how Jesus defined it for us two pages ago. You're welcome to try to disprove that using scripture.
http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/religious-debates/142917-st-paul-liar-deceiver-31.html

I defined it for you using John's words on the last page. You're welcome to try to disprove that by using scripture.
http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/religious-debates/142917-st-paul-liar-deceiver-32.html

Paul's expounding on lawfulness and lawlessness in Christ is everywhere in his writings (particularly Romans and Galatians), and none of what He said contradicts what Jesus or the other apostles taught.
You're welcome to try to show a conflict in what Paul taught versus what Jesus taught using scripture.


If you want to define what it is to be lawful, you have to look at how Christ actually defined lawfullness/righteousness and lawlessness/disobedience.
Christ defined lawfulness is much more strict terms than even the mosaic covenant does, as a state of perfection in both thought and deed (Matthew 5). And He told you that the only way you'll obey it is by abiding in Him, with His spirit abiding in you (John 15, Matthew 7).

To say he meant some other kind of "lawlessness" is highly unlikely since it entails that he was using language that the Jews would have no idea of what he was referring to.

The Hebrew word for Torah means instruction recieved from God.
The Hebrew concept of Torah is much larger than merely the mosaic regulations.
The mosaic covenant was Torah for a particular group as part of that covenant.
But God made a new covenant through Christ, and His Torah comes through His Spirit directly to our hearts if we are open and willing to recieve it (Matthew 26, Jeremiah 31).

Matthew 7 links those who are lawless with those who did not abide in Christ to bear righteous fruit (the fruit of love).
Lawlessness is defined by Jesus in John 15 as disobedience.
Obedience is defined as love in John 15.

Disobeying an instruction from God is lawlessness.
And His instruction, through Christ, is that you love.

He instructed you to love, and to achieve that He says you need to abide in Him from a position of obedience to the leading of His Spirit (John 15).
Because from that position of spiritual unity you will bear the fruit of righteousness (selfless love), with the law written on your heart and mind, having no need for the fence of the mosaic regulations to protect you from sin and error, because the Holy Spirit Himself will convict you of sin and empower you to walk righteously (Jeremiah 31).

So you'd be incorrect there. With that said, he also says that those who "break and teach to break the least of the commandments will be called the least in the kingdom".
He then goes on to define what He means by "these" commandments, by explaining the Spirit behind the law, which can be summed up as perfect love like the Father.

This fits right in with what Jesus tells us to do elsewhere. He only ever gave one commandment to us: Love.

In order to do that He tells us that we need to believe and abide.
He doesn't tell us to observe the mosaic regulations to achieve His commandment.

Also, the whole moral of the story of the Rich man and Lazarus was to say that those who ignore "Moses and the prophets" will burn in hell.

Acts 21 explicitly says that James accosted Paul on a rumor that he was teaching the Jews to not obey the Law of Moses.
I already refuted both of those assertions, in detail, about 10 pages ago in this thread.

I welcome you to read my response here, and respond to them:
http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/religious-debates/142917-st-paul-liar-deceiver-24.html
 
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Shermana

Heretic
Christ himself, John, and Paul, all define for us what" lawlessness" is - and it doesn't mean what you think it means.

Of course it means what I think it means. It doesn't mean what YOU think it means, that's what I proved. We can play this "nuh uh" game all day. You are refusing to address what I actually said, Jesus would not be using terms the Jews were unfamiliar with. Lawlessness to the Jews meant nothing other than "against Mosaic Law". I showed you with examples as well. You just don't like that.

I showed you how Jesus defined it for us two pages ago. You're welcome to try to disprove that using scripture.
http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/religious-debates/142917-st-paul-liar-deceiver-31.html

I kind of did show that you're wrong. And I used scripture. You have this idea that your answers use scripture and mine don't just because you disagree with my interpretation, whereas I showed directly with scripture that such interpretations as yours are wrong in terms that anyone can agree. Shall we do a 1x1 with a poll on this subject?

I defined it for you using John's words on the last page. You're welcome to try to disprove that by using scripture.
http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/religious-debates/142917-st-paul-liar-deceiver-32.html

You keep saying "using scripture" as if you have defined it using scripture. How about using historical and cultural context instead.

Paul's expounding on lawfulness and lawlessness in Christ is everywhere in his writings (particularly Romans and Galatians), and none of what He said contradicts what Jesus or the other apostles taught.
You're welcome to try to show a conflict in what Paul taught versus what Jesus taught using scripture.

Again, this "using scripture" nonsense, as if what you have proven uses scripture and mine doesn't.


If you want to define what it is to be lawful, you have to look at how Christ actually defined lawfullness/righteousness and lawlessness/disobedience.

I did. You just don't like it.

Christ defined lawfulness is much more strict terms than even the mosaic covenant does, as a state of perfection in both thought and deed (Matthew 5). And He told you that the only way you'll obey it is by abiding in Him, with His spirit abiding in you (John 15, Matthew 7).

You must have ignored my whole conversation with Pegg. If you say it's MORE strict than the Mosaic Law, that means it still includes the Mosaic Law. You're saying it's much more loose. I'm saying that Jesus explains how to fully obey the Law, not that you can now break it. Besides you'd also be ignoring the epistles of James and Peter and Acts 21.



The Hebrew word for Torah means instruction recieved from God.
The Hebrew concept of Torah is much larger than merely the mosaic regulations.
The mosaic covenant was Torah for a particular group as part of that covenant.
But God made a new covenant through Christ, and His Torah comes through His Spirit directly to our hearts if we are open and willing to recieve it (Matthew 26, Jeremiah 31).

You're just ignoring virtually everything that I've discussed. The New Covenant is simply the Renewed covenant. The Law is to be written on the hearts of believers.

Matthew 7 links those who are lawless with those who did not abide in Christ to bear righteous fruit (the fruit of love).
Lawlessness is defined by Jesus in John 15 as disobedience.
Obedience is defined as love in John 15.

You proved that through scripture? You're just redefining the terms to the opposite of what Jesus meant, snipping out all he teaches. Obedience IS love, and it's about obedience to the commandments. Do you even know why Jesus was considered the Messiah in the first place?
Disobeying an instruction from God is lawlessness.
And His instruction, through Christ, is that you love.

Again, if you think that's all Christ's instruction is, you simply haven't read the Gospels or you are snipping out 99.999% of what he teaches.

He instructed you to love, and to achieve that He says you need to abide in Him from a position of obedience to the leading of His Spirit (John 15).
Because from that position of spiritual unity you will bear the fruit of righteousness (selfless love), with the law written on your heart and mind, having no need for the fence of the mosaic regulations to protect you from sin and error, because the Holy Spirit Himself will convict you of sin and empower you to walk righteously (Jeremiah 31).

He instructed a lot more than that, I have to question if you've even read the Gospels beyond a sheet of cherry picked verses.


He then goes on to define what He means by "these" commandments, by explaining the Spirit behind the law, which can be summed up as perfect love like the Father.

No, "these commandments" are in reference to the Law and prophets that he mentions right before.

This fits right in with what Jesus tells us to do elsewhere. He only ever gave one commandment to us: Love.

Again, if you think Jesus only gave one commandment, you simply haven't read the Gospels. And again, he said all the commandments HANG on Love of God and neighbor which means each commandment is about love of God or neighbor.

In order to do that He tells us that we need to believe and abide.
He doesn't tell us to observe the mosaic regulations to achieve His commandment.

Thank you for demonstrating your unfamiliarity with what Jesus actually teaches and ignoring the examples that I provided.





I already refuted both of those assertions, in detail, about 10 pages ago in this thread.

You did? I guess I can just go ahead and say I refuted everything you said except I can actually show how. One thing I've learned is that one can say he refuted anything using any logic he wants without actually addressing in detail the counter-arguments.


I welcome you to read my response here, and respond to them:
Was St. Paul a liar and deceiver?

I welcome everyone reading to read that to get an idea of just how slippery these wet knots of non-answers are and how you can read anything you want into the text and ignore the context and ignore what Jesus actually specifically teaches, and I welcome you to actually respond to my actual rebuttal!
 
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Rise

Well-Known Member
I gave you an understanding of lawfulness and disobedience is from John 15, but you haven't used any scripture to show why my understanding of that is wrong.

You haven't offered up any supporting scripture of your interpretaiton of that one verse in 1 John either, in light of the other verses I gave you that put John's comment into context.
He's also reiterating in his whole letter the concepts laid down by Jesus in John 15, so understanding one ties in with understanding the other.

I linked you to page 24 because I already addressed those exact two issues in detail (lazarus and paul), and none of what I said was challenged by you or anyone else, so I linked you to them in order that you may try to show how what I said is wrong (rather than copy pasting the same thing again).
 
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Shermana

Heretic
I gave you an understanding of lawfulness and disobedience is from John 15, but you haven't used any scripture to show why my understanding of that is wrong.

I gave you scripture, you just refuse to acknowledge it. I showed you from the example of the Poor man and Lazarus, in its context to Luke 16:17. I showed you Acts 21. I showed you 1 John 5:3. , I showed you that Jesus says "Anyone who breaks and teaches to break the least of these commandments" is in reference to the "Law and the prophets" that he mentions right before, You simply won't accept "as scripture" anything you disagree with it seems. But to be fair, I'm the same way, because I'm calling you out as not actually using scripture to base your claims. The difference is that I think my view is actually substantiated and your view is missing the very context and ignoring other verses and ultimately making very out-there interpretations of verses that don't at all mean what you think they mean. So I guess we can call it a stalemate and let the reader decide which of us is misinterpreting.

You haven't offered up any scripture to support your position on 1 John either, in light of other verses that put John's comment into context by telling us what exactly those commandments are.

You can keep repeating that I haven't used scripture all you want, it won't make it anymore true. Just be more honest and say that you simply don't accept my scriptural uses. Because you haven't shown from scripture that 1 John 5:3 doesn't mean what I say. And you also don't seem to acknowledge the historical and cultural context.

He's also reiterating in his whole letter the concepts laid down by Jesus in John 15, so understanding one ties in with understanding the other.

So it seems you think that all Jesus meant was somehow implied there yet you refuse to acknowledge any interpretation of the other things Jesus teaches.

I linked you to page 24 because I already addressed those exact two issues in detail, and none of what I said was challenged by you or anyone else, so I linked you to them in order that you may try to show how what I said is wrong.

If you really want me to show you how your "addressing" doesn't at all in any way debunk what I'm saying, I'll get to that tomorrow.
 
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Rise

Well-Known Member
You misread acts 21, and Luke 16 doesn't hold up as a mosaic regulation observance - I've already shown that on page 24.
So those two are out the window as supportive verses unless you can show why my counter arguments aren't correct.

John's quote in 1 John 5 ties in with the rest of the letter, which when taken together alude to the fullness of what Jesus taught in John 15. And my reading of John 15 is accurate (I challenge you to prove othewise based on what I already posted two pages back about John 15 and it's connection with Matthew 7).
I may take the time later to do a more full and and hopefully more clear exposition on John 15, and how it ties in with 1 John's teachings.

So all you're really left with is a verse in Matthew 5 where Jesus references "these commandments", followed by an exposition on the spirit, not the letter, behind the law and the prophets - That's what He means by "These" commandments. The ones that follow in His teaching.
Which make perfect sense in the context of His teachings and the teachings of His disciples as a call to live by the Spirit of God.
Your interpretation of Matthew 5 just doesn't fit with the wholeness of His teachings, or the teachings of His disciples.


And if you consider Acts authoritative enough to cite it (and Luke too), Acts verifies Paul as an apostle appointed by Christ. His teaching is just as valid. His outline of doctrine in Romans does not go against anything Jesus taught. His lay-out of how we are to live by the Spirit in Romans 8 is restatement of what Jesus teaches about abiding in Him and obeying in John 15.
What I did with that whole three post long response on Matthew 7 vs Ephesians 2 shows in some detail how Paul and Jesus are in unison with their teachings, despite claims to the contrary.

You're going to have real trouble trying to support your position using two books that you shouldn't even consider canon if your goal is reject the apostleship of Paul. You can hardly reject Acts without rejecting the gospel of Luke too. If he's reliable enough to write a Gospel, he's reliable enough to write a church history as well. But if his church history can't be trusted, then neither should his gospel.
 
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Desert Snake

Veteran Member
References to the "Law of Liberty" in James and elsewhere pretty much debunk the theory that Jesus was preaching the entire OT law, that hasn't been refuted
 

Shermana

Heretic
You misread acts 21, and Luke 16 doesn't hold up as a mosaic regulation observance - I've already shown that on page 24.
So those two are out the window as supportive verses unless you can show why my counter arguments aren't correct.

No, YOU misread Acts 21 and Luke 16.

It's quite obvious, James is telling Paul that he has heard a rumor about him teaching Jews to not follow Moses, and they were "Zealous for the Law". Apparently early Jewish Christians were "Zealous for the Law".

And the story of the Rich Man and Lazarus is in context to Luke 16:17 which says the Law will never be undone.

You simply don't like direct context.

John's quote in 1 John 5 ties in with the rest of the letter, which when taken together alude to the fullness of what Jesus taught in John 15. And my reading of John 15 is accurate (I challenge you to prove othewise based on what I already posted two pages back about John 15 and it's connection with Matthew 7).

I challenge YOU to prove me otherwise. You basically won't accept any interpretation whatsoever and you'll say I don't use scripture when I do. So we're in a stalemate.

We can play this "nuh uh" game all day. You simply refuse to acknowledge the actual context of the Judaic situation, do you even know what the Messianic criteria was in the first place?

I may take the time later to do a more full and and hopefully more clear exposition on John 15, and how it ties in with 1 John's teachings.

Oh so you're admitting you weren't actually that clear in how you proved John 15 fits what you're saying? Probably because you have to twist it so badly.

So all you're really left with is a verse in Matthew 5 where Jesus references "these commandments", followed by an exposition on the spirit, not the letter, behind the law and the prophets - That's what He means by "These" commandments. The ones that follow in His teaching.

No, all YOU are left with is twisting the heck out of each passage that directly proves what I'm saying. It's basically your interpretation versus mine, except mine actually accounts for context.

I showed several times in the thread that the "Spirit of the Law" does not mean "The Written Law does not matter". You seem stuck on this idea. The issue is that Jesus taught how to properly interpret the Law. You ignore this concept. I question how familiar you are with what Jesus actually taught besides whatever cherry picked verses you may be aware of.

Which make perfect sense in the context of His teachings and the teachings of His disciples as a call to live by the Spirit of God.

What makes perfect sense is that you are twisting the context and ignoring the key indicators that reveal it's all about teaching the correct version of the Law. What makes sense is that you don't understand what "Spirit of the Law" means and you think that the Spirit of the Law somehow trumps and supercedes the Written Law, rather than defining it.

To put it simply, you can't have a Spirit of the Law without knowing what the written law says first. The Spirit merely CLARIFIES the written Law. You are claiming it SUPERCEDES it.

That makes NO SENSE.

Your interpretation of Matthew 5 just doesn't fit with the wholeness of His teachings, or the teachings of His disciples.

No, YOUR interpretation just doesn't fit, and it doesn't fit with the very reason why he's Messiah in the first place. We can go back and forth and say "nuh uh", do you want to do a 1x1 with a poll?

I seriously doubt whether you are familiar with what he actually teaches.

If anything you are demonstrating just how off the wall non-Nazarene context is in understanding the scripture.



And if you consider Acts authoritative enough to cite it (and Luke too), Acts verifies Paul as an apostle appointed by Christ. His teaching is just as valid.

I consider it authoritative enough to prove to people like you what it says according to their own doctrine. You said I don't understand what Acts 21 says, no it's the opposite. It's YOU who doesn't get it.

Acts 21 is crystal clear that James and the Jerusalem Church were "Zealous for the Law". Your interpretation means that JAMES WAS WRONG.

His outline of doctrine in Romans does not go against anything Jesus taught.

Sure it does. You just interpret what Jesus taught incorrectly, as I've demonstrated.

His lay-out of how we are to live by the Spirit in Romans 8 is restatement of what Jesus teaches about abiding in Him and obeying in John 15.
What I did with that whole three post long response on Matthew 7 vs Ephesians 2 shows in some detail how Paul and Jesus are in unison with their teachings, despite claims to the contrary.

Ephesians is not authentic to begin with. They are not in unison. Again, you are proving greatly how one can make the Bible say anything they want without regards to actual context.

I have repeatedly stated that the Jews would ONLY understand lawlessness to mean "Against Mosaic Law", you have ignored this each time.

I don't think it's going to be possible to convince you otherwise, but it's okay, because you won't convince me either. We'll just have to let the reader decide which of us is interpreting correctly.

You're going to have real trouble trying to support your position using two books that you shouldn't even consider canon if your goal is reject the apostleship of Paul.

If you aren't even able to understand why I used Acts 21 in the first place, you probably aren't going to understand what Acts 21 means in the first place. You're going to be in trouble actually convincing people that I'm wrong when you twist the heck out of each passages beyond what they plainly say and deny any and all cultural context.

You can hardly reject Acts without rejecting the gospel of Luke too.

Not necessarily. Besides, what I'm rejecting in Acts is certain parts that may have been interpolated later. Did you not understand the difference between rejecting a particular passage as a scholarly-backed position of interpolation and rejecting the whole book? If you can't understand a simple argument, you're gonna have a hard time understanding a complex gospel.

If he's reliable enough to write a Gospel, he's reliable enough to write a church history as well. But if his church history can't be trusted, then neither should his gospel.

Again, you simply don't understand the difference between denying a particular passage as a spurious interpolation and denying the whole book.

So start by learning how to actually discern a person's argument from what he says and maybe you'll have better luck discerning what a complex Biblical text says especially in terms of cultural context.
 

Shermana

Heretic
I gave you an understanding of lawfulness and disobedience is from John 15, but you haven't used any scripture to show why my understanding of that is wrong.

Didn't I tell you that repeating yourself and denying my use of scripture as "not using scripture" is not going to help your case?

You haven't offered up any supporting scripture of your interpretaiton of that one verse in 1 John either, in light of the other verses I gave you that put John's comment into context.

Now you're just flat out lying, I've demonstrated each time as out of context, you simply rejected my use and insisted on your interpretation which IS out of context.

So obviously, we're at a Stalemate. Are you trying to convince me of something?
He's also reiterating in his whole letter the concepts laid down by Jesus in John 15, so understanding one ties in with understanding the other.

You have not proven that whatsoever that it only applies to John 15. You have proven that you insist on your interpretation and reject context out of hand while claiming the same thing of the other.

Again, would you like to 1x1 on this with a poll to get a vote here on who is not using scripture correctly and who is out of context?

I
linked you to page 24 because I already addressed those exact two issues in detail (lazarus and paul), and none of what I said was challenged by you or anyone else, so I linked you to them in order that you may try to show how what I said is wrong (rather than copy pasting the same thing again).

I challenge anyone reading to show me how his arguments on that link remotely back his position.

Basically you're proving that anyone can say anything and say it backs their position, use any scripture in any context they want and say it backs their position, and then refuse to accept other people's interpretations and call it out of context while not even bothering to show how.

Now either accept my 1x1-with-poll challenge, or leave it at this and let the reader decide which of us is right or wrong.
 

Shermana

Heretic
References to the "Law of Liberty" in James and elsewhere pretty much debunk the theory that Jesus was preaching the entire OT law, that hasn't been refuted

You have yet to explain how.

Perhaps your "Law of Liberty" thread may help you see the error of this. Obviously from that thread it appears you're not sure of it yourself of what it means, so why insist on such a position that you aren't even sure of what it means?

Especially when James refers to the Mosaic Law explicitly.

And eventually you may want to actually explain why you think I'm interpreting Acts 21 incorrectly, last time I asked on this thread I think you just accused me of preaching when I asked you to explain your position. Wanna try actually substantiating? I know you don't like substantating your dismissals and denials, but if you're gonna insist on a vague concept, you may want to look like you know what you're talking about.
 
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skinker

Member
Paul deceived all Christians by claiming a spiritual authority he had no entitlement to. Paul ruined Christianity for all Christians and the world by his utterly horrible, anti-Christ, commandment for Christians to obey their established governments or face condemnation in hell. With that precedent Pauline Christians have allowed themselves to totally ignore, as Paul does, Jesus' teachings and Jesus' example of himself as Rebellion against man-made Authority when man-made Authority's man-made Law runs counter to God's will and God's mercy and compassion.

Following Paul instead of Jesus, Pauline Christians in action through history do the will of tyrants quite willing to use God as cover for their lusts for other people's lands and resources. From Constantin to George W. Bush, leaders have been sending Christians off to battle for God and Country and thereby completely abandoning Jesus' teachings of turning the other cheek, honoring peacemakers, and putting aside the sword as Jesus Christ's kingdom is not a worldly one but is celestial. Thank God Pauline Christianity is entering its End Times.
 

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
And eventually you may want to actually explain why you think I'm interpreting Acts 21 incorrectly,

My guess is that instead of James being an "Accusitor", he is merely in the storyline.
last time I asked on this thread I think you just accused me of preaching when I asked you to explain your position. Wanna try actually substantiating? I know you don't like substantating your dismissals and denials, but if you're gonna insist on a vague concept, you may want to look like you know what you're talking about.

No vague concept here, everyone else seems to be interpreting those verses differenty than you are.
 

Shermana

Heretic
My guess is that instead of James being an "Accusitor", he is merely in the storyline.
And?
No vague concept here, everyone else seems to be interpreting those verses differenty than you are.
By "everyone" you mean "everyone against the Mosaic Law" of course. Naturally expected.

But I do appreciate you admitting that you'd rather just say "everyone interprets differently than you" than give your explanation on why I'm wrong regarding Acts 21.

I guess there's a reason why you've dodged out on explaining your take on it every single time and using one excuse and accusation after another instead.
 

Desert Snake

Veteran Member

So what is your reasoning then? Why would that verse have any bearing on whether the OT laws should be followed??

By "everyone" you mean "everyone against the Mosaic Law" of course. Naturally expected.

No, really, I'm not getting your logic on that interpretation, which is why it's nearly impossible to argue your theory,,,,. as it doesn't appear to be in scripture in the first place.
 

Shermana

Heretic
Why would that verse have any bearing on whether the OT laws should be followed??
Because basic deduction should tell you that James was putting Paul on the spot because this rumor he heard went against the party line. And this isn't even getting into whether 21:25 is indeed interpolated or not. (Which it most likely is).

The only logical answer one on the anti-Law side could make, in regards to keeping the context correct, is to say James and the whole Jerusalem Church was simply wrong.

Otherwise, Paul wouldn't be being put on the spot. Let me know if you need further clarification.

And while you're at it, why don't you explain YOUR take on it for once.

No, really, I'm not getting your logic on that interpretation, which is why it's nearly impossible to argue your theory,,,,. as it doesn't appear to be in scripture in the first place.
How does it not appear to be in scripture? James says that the Jews were "Zealous for the Law" and then accuses Paul of a rumor he heard of telling Jews to not obey Moses.

It should be clear to everyone except those who willfully want to deny and dismiss the actual context at stake which pokes a hole in their anti-Law doctrine.
 

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
Because basic deduction should tell you that James was putting Paul on the spot because this rumor he heard went against the party line. And this isn't even getting into whether 21:25 is indeed interpolated or not. (Which it most likely is).

The only logical answer one on the anti-Law side could make, in regards to keeping the context correct, is to say James and the whole Jerusalem Church was simply wrong.

Otherwise, Paul wouldn't be being put on the spot. Let me know if you need further clarification.

And while you're at it, why don't you explain YOUR take on it for once.

How does it not appear to be in scripture? James says that the Jews were "Zealous for the Law" and then accuses Paul of a rumor he heard of telling Jews to not obey Moses.

It should be clear to everyone except those who willfully want to deny and dismiss the actual context at stake which pokes a hole in their anti-Law doctrine.

No, it's referring to the gentiles converting to early Christianity, that's why in Acts 21:25 it gives dtails as to how the gentiles should follow the 'laws' namely the few commandments that are given, not the entire OT laws. You've completely misunderstood the text.

The meaning is actually the opposite of what you're saying.
 

Shermana

Heretic
No, it's referring to the gentiles converting to early Christianity, that's why in Acts 21:25 it gives dtails as to how the gentiles should follow the 'laws' namely the few commandments that are given, not the entire OT laws. You've completely misunderstood the text.

Ummm no, Acts 21 is about James accosting Paul about a rumor he heard about telling JEWISH Christians to break the Law.

I'm assuming now that you still haven't actually read the passage even after I posted it several times for you.

Do I need to go over it line by line with you?

It's very cute you tell me that I'm misunderstanding the text when you completely dodge out of what it specifically says and then make the focus entirely on 21:25 which is the verse in question in terms of being interpolated.

I guess I should get into why the Council of Jerusalem episode and 21:25 are considered interpolated by many major scholars. I'll deal with that after dinner.
 

Ken Brown

Well-Known Member
Because basic deduction should tell you that James was putting Paul on the spot because this rumor he heard went against the party line. And this isn't even getting into whether 21:25 is indeed interpolated or not. (Which it most likely is).

The only logical answer one on the anti-Law side could make, in regards to keeping the context correct, is to say James and the whole Jerusalem Church was simply wrong.

Otherwise, Paul wouldn't be being put on the spot. Let me know if you need further clarification.

And while you're at it, why don't you explain YOUR take on it for once.

How does it not appear to be in scripture? James says that the Jews were "Zealous for the Law" and then accuses Paul of a rumor he heard of telling Jews to not obey Moses.

It should be clear to everyone except those who willfully want to deny and dismiss the actual context at stake which pokes a hole in their anti-Law doctrine.

Shalom Shermana, I go by ImAHebrew at other forums, and the ONLY explanation for Acts 21 is that the Body of Messiah determined to BIND upon the Jewish Believers the full keeping of the physical Torah of Moshe, and upon the Gentiles, a special dispensation was made to allow them INTO fellowship by LOOSENING the physical keeping of the Torah, with the exception of those 4 necessary commands. Do not think that v.25 was interpolated, if it was, was Acts 15:19-29 also interpolated. KB
 
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Desert Snake

Veteran Member
Ummm no, Acts 21 is about James accosting Paul about a rumor he heard about telling JEWISH Christians to break the Law.

I'm assuming now that you still haven't actually read the passage even after I posted it several times for you.

Acts 21:20, that's not an accusation, it says they glorified the Lord.

It's very cute you tell me that I'm misunderstanding the text when you completely dodge out of what it specifically says and then make the focus entirely on 21:25 which is the verse in question in terms of being interpolated.

It specifically says they glorified the Lord, then gave instructions on how the Gentiles were to follow the laws

I guess I should get into why the Council of Jerusalem episode and 21:25 are considered interpolated by many major scholars. I'll deal with that after dinner.

You misinterpreted the earlier verses also, you'd have to explain that deviation from what the verses actually state also.
 

Shermana

Heretic
I appreciate you displaying your utter disregard for the actual implications of the text. So I guess I gotta repost it for you yet again.

Regardless if verse 25 is interpolated, and it most likely is, it's still about him accusing Paul of a rumor of telling JEWISH christians to abandon Moses.

20When they heard this, they praised God. Then they said to Paul: “You see, brother, how many thousands of Jews have believed, and all of them are zealous for the law. 21They have been informed that you teach all the Jews who live among the Gentiles to turn away from Moses, telling them not to circumcise their children or live according to our customs. 22What shall we do? They will certainly hear that you have come, 23so do what we tell you. There are four men with us who have made a vow. 24Take these men, join in their purification rites and pay their expenses, so that they can have their heads shaved. Then everybody will know there is no truth in these reports about you, but that you yourself are living in obedience to the law. 25As for the Gentile believers, we have written to them our decision that they should abstain from food sacrificed to idols, from blood, from the meat of strangled animals and from sexual immorality.”


If you insist one more time that this has nothing to do with what I'm saying, I challenge you to a 1x1 with poll.

Also, you can accuse me 'misinterpreting the earlier verses also" all you want, but you have no substantiation. As usual.
 

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
Acts 21:20 it states they glorified the Lord
Acts 21:21 It explains how the council understood the conversion
Acts 21:22 They need to figure out a remedy for the conversion of gentiles
Acts 21:23 The council gives instructions
Acts 21:24 The council gives laws on purification of the converts
Acts 21:25 The council lists the necessary laws to be followed by Gentiles
Acts 21:26 The converts are converted, purification in the Temple
Acts 21:27 The Jews which were of Asia make the accusations

Nothing to do with an accusation at the council, the opposite in fact
 
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