I have not "contested" your preferred definition of the word.
...
As though you think there can not be any other definition than one you prefer.
Logical fallacy, "Argument by Assertion".
Merely asserting that the definition I gave of Biblical sin is a "preference" doesn't make it true just because you assert it.
You cannot establish with facts or reasons that the definition I gave of Biblical sin is not objectively true of what the Bible says about sin.
You therefore have no basis for claiming my definition of Biblical sin is just a "preference", which implies there are multiple definitions of equal value or that it is just subjective.
I contest your bold empty claim that the Bible has some sort of ownership of the word.
It does not.
Logical fallacy, "argument by assertion".
I refuted your claim already in my last post and you have no counter to my arguments.
The burden of rejoinder is on you to provide a valid counter argument otherwise your claim stands as refuted.
Merely asserting that my claim is "empty" or that what I said is wrong doesn't make it true just because you assert it.
You need to give actual reasons why anything I said is wrong.
Here again is what I posted which refuted your claim:
Your argument is fallacious because you're confusing two separate issues that are not logically related.
"Sin" is an english word with an etymology of it's own, yes - but that is irrelevant to the issue you were trying to argue. You were trying to argue against the Biblical definition of "sin" I gave.
English historical etymology has absolutely nothing to do with how the Bible defines the greek "hamartia" or the hebrew "chata".
And I made it clear in my post I was talking about the Biblical concept of "sin" - not the historical english etymology of that word.
Given that I was talking about the Biblical definition of "sin", only the Bible can define for us what that term actually means.
It ultimately won't change the Biblical definition of that word even if you changed what english word you used to translate "hamartai" and "chata" - because the context of the Bible provides for us what the definition of those words means.
See, it is YOU who is contesting my definition of the word.
Post
#187
You tried to contest my definition of Biblical sin by claiming the definition is something different.
I showed why you are wrong.
Of course I have to, by definition, contest your definition of the word in order to prove my definition was correct originally.
But that's missing the point that you were the one who first tried to contest my definition of the word.
You go even further with your claim that the Bible owns the word.
Logical fallacy, "Strawman".
You are mispresenting what I have said.
I said that I gave you the Biblical definition of sin.
I did not say I gave you the english etymological definition of sin.
The two are different.
And you cannot dispute that my definition of what the Bible says is sin is correct.
Now since the Bible is merely another book to me, it holds no power, no authority, over me.
Your inability to understand and or accept that fact is on you.
Not me.
Logical fallacy, "argument by repetition".
I already refuted your argument, and instead of responding to my points with a valid counter argument you merely repeated your original claim.
But merely repeating your original claim doesn't stop your argument from having been refuted already.
Here it is again, that which already refuted your argument:
Your statement is not relevant to the point you were trying to dispute.
Your belief in the Bible doesn't change the Biblical definition of "sin" as it is found used in the Bible.
You have no factual basis for asserting sin has a different Biblical definition than the one I gave.
And that doesn't change just because you decide you don't believe in the Bible. The two circumstances are not in any way linked together.
What is the next strawman you are going to beat up on?
Logical fallacy, "argument by assertion".
Merely accusing me of committing a strawman doesn't make it true just because you assert it is.
You cannot quote any post of mine and explain logically why it qualifies as a strawman, because it never happened.