1) What is verse 5 telling us to be like (to have in our mind)?
2) Please can you explain how Jesus
did not think that it was robbery to be
equal to God?
3) Please explain how you say that Jesus
IS NOT GOD but was only
in the form of God?
4) What is demonstrated by Jesus making himself of no consequence / no reputation?
5) How do you read verse 11, which says:
- “And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.”
and 1 Cor 8:6, which says:
- “yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ”
which both clearly distinguishes ‘God’ from ‘Lord’ stating ‘GOD’ as ‘the Father’, and ‘Jesus’ as ‘the Lord’.
And yet you still say that ‘Jesus is GOD’?
Would you say that the Sheep owner (God) is the Shepherd of the Sheep (Jesus)?
6) The text states Jesus as being a Servant. How does this equate to Jesus being ‘God’ yet only ‘equal to God’ that he is not? Is God a servant, wherein GOD SAYS of the coming messiah:
- ‘Behold my SERVANT in whom I delight: MY CHOSEN ONE on whom I will put MY SPIRIT’ (Isaiah 42:1)
Phil 2 does not say what you have been deluded into thinking by trinitarian claims.
Verse 5 itself says that Jesus WAS /IS NOT GOD. It says that even though Jesus HAD THE POWER OF GOD, JESUS did not think of himself as EQUAL TO GOD!
What I can’t get from your thinking is how you can read that Jesus could be GOD and EQUAL to God… Doesn’t the FACT that it says, ‘EQUAL TO’ tell you that the equated to God CANNOT BE GOD it is equated to?
To illustrate to yourself: Please give me an example of something or someone who is EQUAL to something or someone else AND IS that something or someone else!!!
Please, please, please, do not ignore this question. On this hinges the proper interpretation of Phil 2.
And what does Isaiah 42:1 tell you?
And what does Acts 10:27-28 tell you?
Truth: Both tell you the same thing:
- That GOD put his holy spirit on Jesus and in so doing Jesus was able to do the works of God.
- We know this from the baptism of Jesus in which John baptised Jesus with water BUT GOD BAPTISED Jesus with the water of holiness, the oil of gladness, the Holy Spirit of God.
- And what was the purpose of the holy oil baptism?
- And what is the other (and more important) name of this act? ANOINTING… What was the purpose of an anointing?
- And what does ‘CHRIST’ mean? Does it not mean: ‘ANOINTED ONE’. Jesus BECAME Jesus [THE] CHRIST, Jesus, the anointed one, after he was anointed with the Holy Spirit of God.
Have you not noticed that GOD NEVER BECOMES… because GOD ALWAYS IS!!
What Phil 2 says is that though Jesus had the power of God by means of his anointing with GOD’s Holy Spirit, he DID NOT THINK TO ABUSE THE POWER OF THE HOLY SPIRIT which is why he was first TEMPTED in the wilderness.
Have you not noticed that Jesus did not do anything of a miraculous nature until AFTER he was anointed with HOLY SPIRIT and WITH POWER, and TESTED?
Have you not read how Jesus HUMBLED himself in front of his fellow man and used his powers for good - healing the sick and poor. He held no property, no home, no money of his own yet he was master of all things.
‘And for this reason
GOD EXALTED HIM …’.
How is Jesus, ‘
GOD’ and yet is ‘
exalted BY GOD’?
You are going to say that Jesus BECAME MAN?
I say again, ‘GOD does not BECOME’… and for sure, ‘GOD’ and HIS CREATION (‘Man’) do not intermingle…but the creator can EMPOWER his creation by means of his Holy Spirit, like as how seen at Pentecost.
Man is the CREATION OF GOD, and that is why GOD is FATHER (which means, ‘Creator’, ‘Giver of life’…!)
Jesus was created MAN and endowed with the Spirit of God in full because he was sinless…
The apostles were men who were also endowed with the spirit of God but not in full because they had differing amounts of sin in them.