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Where do rights come from?

Locke didn't come up with the concept of human rights for his own self-interests. His thinking was viewed with disdain in his native Britain; he published most of his works in the Netherlands. By some accounts, he was at serious risk of having his head removed from his body by uttering such challenges to the nobility. He formulated the idea of human rights based on two concepts: the state of war (descriptive concept), and the intrinsic value of human labor (normative concept).

His views were popular among the Whigs, and his spell in exile was due to perceived links to a plot against the king. After the Glorious Revolution, and the triumph of the Whig/Protestant/Parliamentary factions he was free to return and published most major works back in Britain.

I think it's easier to make the case that rights are morality-based than "consensus-based" or "self-interest-based." But, based on what you said before, rights being based on morality is a misunderstanding of what's actually going on. I'd love to get a defense of that thesis if you're in the mood.

Rights and rule of law can be seen as narrowly self-interested though for those who do not wish to have to use violence to 'earn' their rights, but for me self-interest is far more than narrow material or physical self-interest, it relates to moral issues too. Needs relate to both physical and psychological well being, and anything that contributes to either can be seen as self-interest.

This telling of the origin of human rights is indeed a myth and is indeed mostly false. But so it is also false that people merely invented the concept of rights out of thin air in order to serve their mutual self-interests.

The idea of rights is rooted in social contract theory. Specifically, it is the brainchild of John Locke. (Hobbes never discussed anything close to the idea of "human rights" in his rendition of social contract theory. He thought that people lived in a perpetual state of war, and the only way to free mankind from that state of war, and establish civilization, is for them to be ruled by some kind of absolute authority. Obviously I'm cutting corners, but that's the gist of Hobbes.)

Locke's idea of rights was based in Christian theology, specifically Biblical creation, and this myth has underpinned emerging western concepts of rights going back to the medieval period and even late antique period.

We have now secularised this mythic origin, but we still very much rely on religious concepts to underpin the doctrines.

But my view is that myth/narrative/ideology creates the framework, and then rights are created by trying to identify how they can fulfil their moral needs within this framework.

I don't see a moral basis as being incompatible with a self-interest basis in a general sense.
 

vulcanlogician

Well-Known Member
Locke's idea of rights was based in Christian theology, specifically Biblical creation, and this myth has underpinned emerging western concepts of rights going back to the medieval period and even late antique period.

Good eye. I was going to bring Locke's theological (or Bible-based) foundation of rights into the conversation in my last post, but the post was already so damn long. I didn't want to bring it up because I have a whole host of objections to it.

When I read Locke's Two Treatises on Government in college (not the entire work, but rather a 40 or so page except on which we all had to write numerous essays)... I found the Biblical justifications he gives for rights to be rather hollow and "tacked-on." I expressed these notions to my professor who agreed somewhat with my assessment. The Biblical justifications are removable, and the basic form of his political ideas still stands. In fact, as I was a rather staunch atheist at the time, (I've mellowed out over the years) I spent some time arguing that Locke's theory of labor suffices as a foundation to his idea of rights in my essays.

Furthermore, there is some dispute as to whether Locke's supposed piety was indeed genuine. Granted there are no knock-down arguments that support the thesis that he might have been a deist or atheist, but his political ideas mimic those of Baruch Spinoza. In Locke's generation, Spinoza was regarded with disdain for his atheistic views, most of Spinoza's works having been banned across Europe for their atheistic ideas.


Not wanting to follow in Spinoza's footsteps, it's quite possible that Locke was an atheist who decided to clothe his philosophy in scriptural raiment in order to conceal some of his more controversial opinions. Also there are plenty of parallels in political thought between Locke and Spinoza. He quoted Spinoza occasionally in his letters, although oftentimes being sure to condemn his philosophy in the same breath. And he was even said to have a couple of works by Spinoza in his personal library.

Anyhoo, there's a bunch of hypothesis and conjecture going on there. Google, "Did Locke read Spinoza?" if you want to venture down that particular rabbit hole. But there are plenty of scholarly papers that argue a connection between the two. Does any of this prove that Locke was an atheist? No. But it does provide a plausible explanation for why he wanted to inject scripture into his philosophy when it really didn't belong.

I don't see what I have done here as "secularizing" Locke, but it should be noted that there were consequences in Locke's time for writing overtly anti-religious treatises. And Locke (at least to some degree) should be understood in that context.

His views were popular among the Whigs, and his spell in exile was due to perceived links to a plot against the king. After the Glorious Revolution, and the triumph of the Whig/Protestant/Parliamentary factions he was free to return and published most major works back in Britain.

Wow. I didn't know that. Thanks for filling in the gaps.

Rights and rule of law can be seen as narrowly self-interested though for those who do not wish to have to use violence to 'earn' their rights, but for me self-interest is far more than narrow material or physical self-interest, it relates to moral issues too. Needs relate to both physical and psychological well being, and anything that contributes to either can be seen as self-interest.


I tend to view morality as any discussion about what is "good for" or "bad for" a person. That includes oneself as well as others. I'll admit there is some grey area when talking about morality and self-interest. There are areas where the two overlap, and (possibly) areas where the two stand at odds. Ethical egoism is a theory that tries to argue that moral concerns and concerns of self-interest are one in the same. I tend to reject ethical egoism. But I don't reject the idea of overlap between the two spheres.
 
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Not wanting to follow in Spinoza's footsteps, it's quite possible that Locke was an atheist who decided to clothe his philosophy in scriptural raiment in order to conceal some of his more controversial opinions. Also there are plenty of parallels in political thought between Locke and Spinoza. He quoted Spinoza occasionally in his letters, although oftentimes being sure to condemn his philosophy in the same breath. And he was even said to have a couple of works by Spinoza in his personal library.

Anyhoo, there's a bunch of hypothesis and conjecture going on there. Google, "Did Locke read Spinoza?" if you want to venture down that particular rabbit hole. But there are plenty of scholarly papers that argue a connection between the two. Does any of this prove that Locke was an atheist? No. But it does provide a plausible explanation for why he wanted to inject scripture into his philosophy when it really didn't belong.

I think the question is largely moot.

Many Enlightenment figures were dissenting Christians, providential Deists and some were atheists. Most of the latter 2 categories were basically irreligious Christians though.

Nietzsche was one of the first to point out that most of the irreligious rejected the idea of God, but found it much harder to jettison the assumptions of Christian morality, and a world created by a benevolent deity.

Providential deism is the clearest example of this where god doesn't intervene, but he created a world where humans would flourish if they followed the rules he had laid out for discovery. Most atheists in the western tradition just remove the god, but still think we are intrinsically good as long as we can grow out of silly superstitions like religion, see the light and become the rational beings we are. Pagans lived in darkness until Christianity showed them the key to salvation. The religious lived in darkness until science and reason showed them the key to salvation.

Richard Dawkins railing against superstitious religious nonsense is the successor to a 17th C preacher railing against the superstitious nonsense of Popery.

It was basically a step in the evolution of Christianity, although it's maybe better to call it 'post-christianity'.

Some like to think of it as a rejection of Christianity and return to 'classical values', but this is mostly just a conceit .

Pre-Enlightenment era Liberal Christianity: teleological, universal, optimistic, salvation/utopian, progress guided by Divine Providence, humans gradually recovering knowledge lost during the fall through science and reason, secular/religious distinction
Enlightenment humanism: teleological, universal, optimistic, salvation/utopian, progress guided by a science and reason, humans building knowledge, secular/religious distinction
Most other historical societies: cyclical/chaotic, non-universal, tragic, capricious gods, no real concept of secular/religious

Certain assumptions of Christianity were baked into the worldview of most people, even if they were not conscious of this (some like Condorcet, or Jefferson even consciously acknowledged this).

I tend to view morality as any discussion about what is "good for" or "bad for" a person. That includes oneself as well as others. I'll admit there is some grey area when talking about morality and self-interest. There are areas where the two overlap, and (possibly) areas where the two stand at odds. Ethical egoism is a theory that tries to argue that moral concerns and concerns of self-interest are one in the same. I tend to reject ethical egoism. But I don't reject the idea of overlap between the two spheres.

For me it sort of depends how narrowly or broadly you define self-interest, I tend to define it very broadly.

For example, sometimes I'm faced with a choice, let's say to donate anonymously to a charity, and I think hmmm it's $20 I could buy a cake or wine for that and sort of don't want to donate. Then I think it's the kind of thing I should do, so I donate. Whatever I did, I wouldn't feel guilty or particularly happy, and wouldn't give it a second's thought after the fact. I just 'do the right thing' because of some vague sense of self-concept that I should do such things.

For me, that is self-interest, and at some level of $ it would cross over and my self-interest would lead me not to donate.

It is a grey area though where things can legitimately be viewed from differnt perspectives
 

EconGuy

Active Member
The State? God? Religion? Something else?
The same place that systems of measurement and rules in sports come from.

Groups of people who see the usefulness of a system of morals that recognize that:

There are other people external to ourselves
The capacity to care about other people (empathy)
We recognize that there are values that are worth valuing
And we have the knowledge and understanding to evaluate the things we value, that is, are our actions consistent with our values?

To give an example of this last one. The Constitution says that "all men are created equal" in a time when they clearly were not. So what has changed? Knowledge and understanding, which resulted in bringing our actions in line with our values.
 

Rival

Diex Aie
Staff member
Premium Member
The same place that systems of measurement and rules in sports come from.

Groups of people who see the usefulness of a system of morals that recognize that:

There are other people external to ourselves
The capacity to care about other people (empathy)
We recognize that there are values that are worth valuing
And we have the knowledge and understanding to evaluate the things we value, that is, are our actions consistent with our values?

To give an example of this last one. The Constitution says that "all men are created equal" in a time when they clearly were not. So what has changed? Knowledge and understanding, which resulted in bringing our actions in line with our values.
This just sounds like moral progressivism though.
 

vulcanlogician

Well-Known Member
Many Enlightenment figures were dissenting Christians, providential Deists and some were atheists. Most of the latter 2 categories were basically irreligious Christians though.

Hey, I think this is a great convo that we're having. I feel like we can agree on the basic premise that universal human rights, as we understand them today, came from Enlightenment thinking. From what I can tell so far, you and can agree on the fact that nothing like "universal human rights" is something that existed in ancient societies, like Egypt, Greece, or Rome. (The Greeks famously didn't have a word for "rights" although this thesis can be debated...) And I think you and I can agree that the middle ages in Europe saw little to advance the idea of universal human rights.

If we disagree on any of those matters, feel free to object. But I'm assuming that we (more-or-less) agree on most of the items listed in the above paragraph.

Where we may disagree is upon the degree of Christianity's influence over Enlightenment thought.

First off, I'll concede that you'd have to be blind not to see that Christianity was influential in a great deal of (big "M") Modern thinking. Of course Enlightenment thinking was influenced by Christian ideas. But it also represented a departure from Christian thinking. Take a figure like Leibniz. This dude basically stole Spinoza's metaphysics and put a conscious, aware, motivated God in place of Spinoza's God which (as Spinoza points out numerous times) is identical with Nature. There is no doubt that Christianity was steering (or at least affecting) Modern thought.

Even Descartes, imo a great philosopher, was tied to Christianity. He fashioned his own form of the ontological argument. He separated body from soul. He even argued that it is impossible to know anything with certitude in a world where God never existed. But let's look at where his ideas lead us conclusion-wise. There is a fundamental difference between body and soul. Therefore, the scientists and mathematicians ought to observe the world as a mechanistic thing. And they needn't be bogged down with notions of spirits or souls. Let the clergy tell us about souls and how they might achieve salvation; let the scientists measure the world as a mechanistic thing without much concern for souls. That's kinda how contemporary science works. Science doesn't bother itself proving or disproving gods. It works solely in empirical matters. Granted, Descartes was a rationalist-- not an empiricist-- but his basic notions, working within the sphere of rationalism, carried us into the age of empirical thought.

To summarize, we should be aware of Christianity's influence in the Enlightenment. But at the same time, it is where thinkers began to seriously challenge Christianity from a completely secular (ie. rational and empirical) vantagepoint. I reject the idea the all Enlightenment morality is reducible to Christian morality. But, at the same time, I admit that much Enlightenment morality (maybe even the majority of it) was rooted-in, or inspired by, Christian morality.

Nietzsche was one of the first to point out that most of the irreligious rejected the idea of God, but found it much harder to jettison the assumptions of Christian morality, and a world created by a benevolent deity.

Providential deism is the clearest example of this where god doesn't intervene, but he created a world where humans would flourish if they followed the rules he had laid out for discovery. Most atheists in the western tradition just remove the god, but still think we are intrinsically good as long as we can grow out of silly superstitions like religion, see the light and become the rational beings we are. Pagans lived in darkness until Christianity showed them the key to salvation. The religious lived in darkness until science and reason showed them the key to salvation.

Richard Dawkins railing against superstitious religious nonsense is the successor to a 17th C preacher railing against the superstitious nonsense of Popery.

Agreed. Stood next to Nietzsche, Dawkins is something of a disgruntled alter boy by comparison. But Nietzsche's atheism ran DEEP. (I loved your paragraphs, btw.)

But Nietzsche didn't stop at Christianity. His criticisms went so far as to not only reject the Christian valuations of life, but also Buddhism. He even criticized the moralism of Plato and Socrates FFS. Nietzsche was a unique thinker in that he was quick to dismiss most of the fundamental assumptions of most thinkers. (He loved Spinoza and Ralph Waldo Emerson, btw. I find that fascinating.)

Anyoo, by bringing a Nietzschean assessment to the table, you've deepened the conversation to the point where we've gotta throw TONS of ancient, modern, contemporary assumptions out the window just to begin the conversation. That would be a better task to tackle in a thread about postmodernism. In a thread about the origin/foundation of human rights, it confuses the issue more than it clarifies things. Nietzsche is one of my favorite philosophers ever, mind you. We can chat about him all you want. But it'll be a tangential conversation that has little to nothing to do with human rights as discussed at the level of the OP or my responses to the OP. (or my questions to you about the moral foundation of rights.)


Some like to think of it as a rejection of Christianity and return to 'classical values', but this is mostly just a conceit .

Pre-Enlightenment era Liberal Christianity: teleological, universal, optimistic, salvation/utopian, progress guided by Divine Providence, humans gradually recovering knowledge lost during the fall through science and reason, secular/religious distinction
Enlightenment humanism: teleological, universal, optimistic, salvation/utopian, progress guided by a science and reason, humans building knowledge, secular/religious distinction
Most other historical societies: cyclical/chaotic, non-universal, tragic, capricious gods, no real concept of secular/religious

This was a cool part of your post too. Plenty of insights there. But of course, I'll focus on what I disagree with because that's what'll clarify things the most. it is inaccurate to say that a return to "classical" values is a return to "ancient pagan values." We aren't talking about returning to Homer's Greece. We are talking about returning to the "classical values" as espoused by Socrates, Plato, Aristotle. All three of these figures challenged the idea of "cyclical/chaotic, non-universal, tragic, capricious gods, no real concept of secular/religious."

Inasmuch as the Enlightenment was a return to the Greek thinking of this period, it is exempted for consideration of being based in Christianity. The dark ages, with all its witch-burnings and paranoia about heretics and Satanists "cursing villages" and "spoiling dairy"... THAT is much more in line with the value-repellant, truth-repellant jism of Homeristic paganism than it is with Socrates or Plato.
 
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vulcanlogician

Well-Known Member
Me too. Unfortunately, I’m a bit pressed for time at the moment and it might be a few days before I can give you a reply.

Hopefully I’ll have some time by the end of the week to write a proper reply.

Apologies for this. I appreciate your posts.

Take your time. I'd prefer a thorough reply over a prompt one.

Besides, I'm kind of in the same boat. I'll log on and read a post and simply not have the time/energy to respond right away. I think the best replies are glacial anyway. More akin to the letter writing of a bygone era.
 
Finally got a little bit of time to reply...

I feel like we can agree on the basic premise that universal human rights, as we understand them today, came from Enlightenment thinking. From what I can tell so far, you and can agree on the fact that nothing like "universal human rights" is something that existed in ancient societies, like Egypt, Greece, or Rome. (The Greeks famously didn't have a word for "rights" although this thesis can be debated...) And I think you and I can agree that the middle ages in Europe saw little to advance the idea of universal human rights.

I would say that the idea of UHR saw their most clear expression in the Enlightenment era, but that most of the building blocks predated that era and the middle ages were important in this regard, and theology and canon law were significant factors in this.

William of Ockham proposed that humans have both political and property rights that derive from natural law. Texts like Defensor pacis by Marsilius of Padua outline clear theories of secular governance and popular sovereignty.

Even with colonisation of the Americas by the Spanish, there were concepts of the Aztecs having rights that derived from their humanity: Bartolomé de las Casas - Wikipedia

Beyond this, there were many developments in this period. Now obviously these were not necessarily the dominant view of either power holders of the time or common people, but these were developments that advanced towards a world where UHR could be articulated.

So I think at least some medieval thinkers had a primitive concept of UHR, and these certainly advanced the idea of human rights closer to its modern conception.

Inasmuch as the Enlightenment was a return to the Greek thinking of this period, it is exempted for consideration of being based in Christianity. The dark ages, with all its witch-burnings and paranoia about heretics and Satanists "cursing villages" and "spoiling dairy"... THAT is much more in line with the value-repellant, truth-repellant jism of Homeristic paganism than it is with Socrates or Plato.

The poor medievals always get a bad rap :( Witch crazes were Renaissance rather than Medieval. For most of the medieval period the church position was that witches didn't exist.

And they emerged in a time of great turmoil in the context of war, plague, and crop failures and famines caused by "Little Ice Age", as well as the Reformation/counter-reformation. But that's another topic altogether.

To summarize, we should be aware of Christianity's influence in the Enlightenment. But at the same time, it is where thinkers began to seriously challenge Christianity from a completely secular (ie. rational and empirical) vantagepoint. I reject the idea the all Enlightenment morality is reducible to Christian morality. But, at the same time, I admit that much Enlightenment morality (maybe even the majority of it) was rooted-in, or inspired by, Christian morality.

A secular age by Charles Taylor is a fascinating analysis of the social and intellectual changes that led to the point where an "exclusive humanism" became possible, although at 800 pages it's not really a casual, light read.

This blog summarises each chapter pretty well though:


But let's look at where his ideas lead us conclusion-wise. There is a fundamental difference between body and soul. Therefore, the scientists and mathematicians ought to observe the world as a mechanistic thing. And they needn't be bogged down with notions of spirits or souls. Let the clergy tell us about souls and how they might achieve salvation; let the scientists measure the world as a mechanistic thing without much concern for souls. That's kinda how contemporary science works. Science doesn't bother itself proving or disproving gods. It works solely in empirical matters. Granted, Descartes was a rationalist-- not an empiricist-- but his basic notions, working within the sphere of rationalism, carried us into the age of empirical thought.

One interesting argument is that the move towards empiricism and the experimental method in science had some of its foundations in the Biblical Fall narrative (which also underpins a progressive teleology to history):

The experimental approach is justified primarily by appeals to the weakness of our sensory and cognitive capacities. For many seventeenth-century English thinkers these weaknesses were understood as consequences of the Fall. Boyle and Locke, for their part, also place stress on the incapacities that necessarily attend the kind of beings that we are. But in both cases, the more important issue is the nature of human capacities rather than the nature of the Deity. And if the idea of a fall away from an originally perfect knowledge begins to decline in importance towards the end of the seventeenth century, it nonetheless played a crucial role by drawing attention to the question of the capacities of human nature in the present world...

One of the first texts that [Francis] Bacon would have had to contend with was the ‘Organon’, a collection of Aristotle’s writings on logic. All undergraduates were expected to become familiar with its contents, and until well into the seventeenth century university statutes prescribed monetary penalties for those guilty of transgressions against Aristotle’s logic.

Bacon’s early resistance to the Aristotelianism he encountered at university and his later ambition to establish new foundations for learning are both evident in the title of what is probably his best known philosophical work: Novum organum – (The New Organon, 1620). At this point it should be unnecessary to labour the fact that Bacon has a conception of natural philosophy as an enterprise devoted to a recovery of Adamic knowledge of nature and dominion over it.

Each of the two sections of the Novum Organum concludes with an injunction to recover the dominion over nature that was lost as a consequence of the Fall. As for the impediments to this recovery, Bacon saw in the long-standing tradition of Aristotelian logic an implicit recognition of the fact that ‘the human intellect left to its own course is not to be trusted’. But Bacon was convinced that the purveyors of logic had systematically misidentified the nature of mental errors and the means by which they were to be corrected. The champions of the old Organon ‘have given the first place to Logic, supposing that the surest helps to the sciences were to be found in that’. In Bacon’s judgement, ‘the remedy is altogether too weak for the disease’. The impotence of logic in the face of the human propensity for error could be attributed to two factors. First, the logicians had simply underestimated the extent of the problem they were seeking to rectify.154 ‘The root cause of nearly all evils in the sciences’, Bacon wrote, is that ‘we falsely admire and extol the powers of the human mind.’ As a consequence, ‘we neglect to seek for its true helps’.155 Second, not realising that error stems from multiple failures of the human mind, they had prescribed a single generic remedy.156

In order to arrive at a true interpretation of nature, Bacon insists, we need to begin with an understanding of human faculties and their limitations. In the Novum Organum, then, Bacon identifies the senses, memory, and reason as the faculties involved in knowledge, and seeks specific ‘ministrations’ or ‘helps’ to heal their inherent infirmities.157 These infirmities, which for Bacon ‘have their foundation in human nature itself’, are referred to as ‘the idols of the tribe’, the first category of four ‘idols of the mind’ to which Bacon attributes the errors of human knowledge.158 For Bacon, the deficiencies of the senses provide the first occasion for error: ‘By far the greatest hindrance and aberration of the human understanding proceeds from the dullness, incompetency, and deceptions of the senses.’159The senses, which are ‘infirm and erring’, fail us in two ways. Sometimes they provide no information; sometimes they provide false information...

Bacon believed that a better ‘help’ for the senses was experimentation: ‘For the subtlety of experiments is far greater than that of the sense itself, even when assisted by exquisite instruments.’" Peter Harrison - The Fall of Man and the foundations of modern science


lenty of insights there. But of course, I'll focus on what I disagree with because that's what'll clarify things the most. it is inaccurate to say that a return to "classical" values is a return to "ancient pagan values." We aren't talking about returning to Homer's Greece. We are talking about returning to the "classical values" as espoused by Socrates, Plato, Aristotle. All three of these figures challenged the idea of "cyclical/chaotic, non-universal, tragic, capricious gods, no real concept of secular/religious."

You make a fair point that we should distinguish between the pre-Socratic era, and Plato and Aristotle (who were both significant influences on Christianity which certainly drew heavily from Greek philosophy).

I still find it hard to see it primarily as a return to classical values though, while accepting that Greek philosophy was certainly part of the mix of ideas percolating at that time.

Aristotle saw humans as fundamentally unequal, some even natural slaves as they lacked reason and thus were incapable of living a virtuous life.

Greek virtue ethics and the idea that the pursuit of wisdom is an aid to virtue, also don't seem a good fit for the more utilitarian Enlightenment ethics, where the world can be bent to human will, and the pursuit of knowledge is to advance the progress of humanity.

As you note, later Greek thinkers may have had some concept of progress, but I feel this is of a somewhat different nature:

Progress - societies can build up knowledge and make improvements within the limitations

a teleological Idea of Progress - 'humanity' is a moral agent that inexorably trends toward becoming a better version of itself (whether driven by Divine Providence or "reason")

I'd say the Idea of Progress as driven by human reason is the single most fundamental characteristic of Enlightenment thought in that it underpins both the liberal and illiberal streams.

Also, do you think that they had a clear concept of secular and religious as 2 distinct domains? I'm not sure that's something I can see, although it could be said that some schools of thought had an implicitly secular, in the sense of naturalistic, view of the world.

Innate equality and rights deriving from a common humanity rather than membership of a group still seem to me to be more of a secularisation of a certain kind of theology.
 

vulcanlogician

Well-Known Member
You make a fair point that we should distinguish between the pre-Socratic era, and Plato and Aristotle (who were both significant influences on Christianity which certainly drew heavily from Greek philosophy).

That's debatable. Scholars on the subject do not agree on whether Plato or Greek thinking had much influence on Christian precepts. It IS agreed, however that the religion started off largely Jewish and became more "Greek" as time went on. Regardless, I see what you see: Plato's ideas reflected within a sort of mystery religion.

The poor medievals always get a bad rap :( Witch crazes were Renaissance rather than Medieval. For most of the medieval period the church position was that witches didn't exist.

The Medievals don't get a bad rap. They get exactly the rap they deserve. Although the "witch craze" occured post-Renaissance, there are plenty of cases of witch hunting in the middle ages. I say again, the medievals don't get a bad rap. They were heartless fig farmers willing to burn people at the stake whenever the Church directed them to do so.

One interesting argument is that the move towards empiricism and the experimental method in science had some of its foundations in the Biblical Fall narrative (which also underpins a progressive teleology to history):

Interesting excerpt.
 

osgart

Nothing my eye, Something for sure
Treat others how you want to be treated. Human rights are a necessary invention. Human rights are inevitable if people want to live with other people. The alternatives are having someone rule over you deciding what's best for you, or worse. Is there a better way? I definitely don't think so. Government is the only access to human rights if it doesn't go rogue and lose the voice of the majority of reasonable people. From human rights is the roots of anything worthwhile.

Meritocracy turns into oppression unless people want to earn their rights with someone like Dennis Prager. Authoritarians also do not have any faith in human nature.
 
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