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Where do rights come from?

Kfox

Well-Known Member
What if you didn't vote for the ruling party and they grant or take away rights that you don't agree with? I'm inclined to think that those in power are only a section of the total population. A good example is the reversal of the Roe v Wade ruling. A minority of the population skewed an even smaller minority (SCOTUS) to do something that the majority didn't want.
Happens all the time! We live in a republic; not a democracy. Had we waited for a majority to agree before passing laws, Roe vs Wade probably wouldn't have gotten off the ground in the first place; heck women still probably wouldn't be allowed to vote!
 

Kfox

Well-Known Member
By the way, take a look at what Republican Senator Tommy Tuberville is doing in the Senate, preventing the promotions and appointments of literally hundreds of US military leaders -- because he, and he alone, has decided that he will do anything, including put the country at risk, to make the military stop paying for women in the military to travel to other states for medical care.
How does this put the nation at risk?
 

MikeF

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
There is a fine line between rights and privileges.

For example. The right to vote or own fire arms can be taken away. So IMO they are privileges that you have as long as you play by the rules.

Your comments have me thinking about the phrase "inalienable rights". As I think about that phrase it strikes me as a complete fiction. There is no such thing. And certainly there is no "right" that is unencumbered by some caveat or other. Perhaps the concept of rights is equivalent to the concept of ideals. One strives for them but they are never fully realized.
 

vulcanlogician

Well-Known Member
Your comments have me thinking about the phrase "inalienable rights". As I think about that phrase it strikes me as a complete fiction. There is no such thing. And certainly there is no "right" that is unencumbered by some caveat or other. Perhaps the concept of rights is equivalent to the concept of ideals. One strives for them but they are never fully realized.

I don't see how a things being conditional precludes us from enjoying or arguing the goodness of rights. We can have an idea of "inalienable rights."

I agree that all rights are (and ought to be) accompanied by some caveat. The pythagorean theorem is true, we can all agree. But it is accompanied by the caveat that we are speaking of Euclidean space. That caveat doesn't interfere with the truth-value of the pythagorean theorem. It merely lays out the necessary conditions in which Pythagoras was right or wrong. When we start considering non-Euclidean space, the pythagorean theorem might not apply.

But when we are talking about Euclidean space, the Pythagorean theorem is true each and every time. And since the space we live in and know (whether it is perfectly Euclidean or not) nonetheless expresses some truth about some kind of Euclidean space that (more or less) exists.

Humans think about things in the space of politics and morality. And they are able to say things like "If x, then Y." You assume that Euclidean (or non-Euclidean) space is real or it is not real. Once you consider one possibility or the other, you see that certain conclusions follow from what we can learn about that kind of space. The moral topology works the same way. All you have to do is assume one basic moral premise and then BOOM. A ton of logical and accurate moral conclusions may follow.
 

MikeF

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
I don't see how a things being conditional precludes us from enjoying or arguing the goodness of rights. We can have an idea of "inalienable rights."

Certainly, if the space is there to do that. Thinking about or have an "idea" about inalienable rights is a far cry from actually possessing or experiencing them. The reality is that any right that may be imagined is vulnerable. Vulnerability would preclude a designation of inalienability in my view.
 

Unfettered

A striving disciple of Jesus Christ
The State? God? Religion? Something else?
I think Thomas Jefferson got it right: They exist on a "self-evident" basis.

But what does that mean?

I understand that to mean that if what people want is to live in civilized societies, then recognizing the reality of natural rights and holding them inviolate—by default, and as the default—is the only viable course. IE, it is self-evident that we have such rights. IE, if we want civilization, rights exist and we must secure that reality with actual practice; if we don't want civilization, rights don't exist and we can all do whatever we can get away with.

That's what I understand is being asserted when it is said that it is "self-evident" that we are endowed with certain rights, etc. And as Revoltingest points out, rights result only when there is accord, and on no other basis are they ever realized (initially).
 
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Mister Emu

Emu Extraordinaire
Staff member
Premium Member
The problem is that the concept of rights doesn't exist solely as a religious or philosophical term, but also as a legal term. As far as the legal term goes, a right only has de facto power when it is ingrained into a legal system.
That's only problematic if you reject that western/american law, and specifically human rights law, has a philosophical foundation. Moreover, the highest written law in America specifically notes that rights exist outside of its enumeration.

All that is done by saying human rights are socially created is making the term meaningless by including its negation in the definition. If you argue that human rights are socially derived, you're at the same place as before the discourse on human rights existed.
 

Shadow Wolf

Certified People sTabber & Business Owner
Rights (glorified privileges, as George Carlin called them) ultimately come from the state, who can grant rights and take them away just as well.
 

Koldo

Outstanding Member
That's only problematic if you reject that western/american law, and specifically human rights law, has a philosophical foundation.

The problem is that if I say rights don't exist, someone else will come along and say that rights obviously exist since I would only need to look at most countries' legal systems. Thus, putting the philosophical and legal application of the term into the same basket.

Moreover, the highest written law in America specifically notes that rights exist outside of its enumeration.

All that is done by saying human rights are socially created is making the term meaningless by including its negation in the definition. If you argue that human rights are socially derived, you're at the same place as before the discourse on human rights existed.

I say that rights are socially created because as far as the legal term goes, they are socially created. Here in Brazil we have a positive right to health, meaning we can sue the State to provide expensive medication (for free). An american might say this is not a proper right, but in Brazil it is, as far as the legal term goes.

More than that, without legal recognition, or at least mutual recognition, rights have absolutely no relevancy. They are just empty claims.
 

Alien826

No religious beliefs
Happens all the time! We live in a republic; not a democracy. Had we waited for a majority to agree before passing laws, Roe vs Wade probably wouldn't have gotten off the ground in the first place; heck women still probably wouldn't be allowed to vote!

I have observed that many (I haven't enough data to say "most", but I suspect it is true) dramatic changes are pushed through by a minority, as the most people resist change. However the change then either survives or doesn't based on how the majority experiences and values it. I believe universal heath care in Canada was very controversial at first, but now it seems to be accepted by the majority. I think we will see "Dobbs" fade away over the years as most people oppose it, but time will tell.
 

Alien826

No religious beliefs
More than that, without legal recognition, or at least mutual recognition, rights have absolutely no relevancy. They are just empty claims.

I would add that a right is equally ineffective if it is not enforced (even if legally defined). During the time of "Jim Crow" black men had the legal right to vote, but were not able to exercise that right in certain areas of the country.
 

Mister Emu

Emu Extraordinaire
Staff member
Premium Member
The problem is that if I say rights don't exist, someone else will come along and say that rights obviously exist since I would only need to look at most countries' legal systems.
Whether that is or is not a problem, it does not address the problem of contradiction in saying human rights exist as social constructs.

I say that rights are socially created because as far as the legal term goes, they are socially created.
How do you approach the law itself saying that is not the case?
 

Koldo

Outstanding Member
Whether that is or is not a problem, it does not address the problem of contradiction in saying human rights exist as social constructs.

Legal rights are social constructs, but jusnaturalism rights are not. I say that rights are social contructs because I don't believe in the existence of jusnaturalism rights.

How do you approach the law itself saying that is not the case?

Just like I approach the preamble of Brazil's constitution when it states the constitution was promulgated under God's protection: It is frill.
 
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