Subduction Zone
Veteran Member
Not a problem and it happened TWICE or as God says in the Bible "I'll do it a second time". The first time he took a nation of people out of an existing nation--the Exodus!
And yes, we both already knew--I'm Jewish as you'll recall--that Zionists were keen since the 1800's--but the Holocaust moved things forward greatly--arguably the Shoah itself was predicted by MOSES thousands of years earlier (!)--and then the United Nations voted to make Israel officially Israel. May 13, 1948 it wasn't, May 14, 1948 it WAS and because it truly WAS that day, the Arab nations and terrorist organizations immediately invaded, ALL per prophecy. THAT's why they invaded!
They received international recognition of their land, and therefore titular and treaty rights were legally enforced, in a DAY. You have the (dubious, if I may so respectfully) distinction of being the first believer or skeptic ever to question this fact of prophecy.
And since you are an ardent skeptic, I've no desire to defend 60 or so prophecies one at a time that Israel has fulfilled--verifiable via printed and film media--since 1948 AD--but as the Bible says, at least we know enough via conscience and other knowledge that there is no excuse for rejecting God's salvation.
Did you not listen? It did not occur in a "single day". Also the Exodus like various other OT stories is fiction. or at best a legend. It did not happen anything like as in the Bible if it happened at all. You are not helping yourself.
And you do not have "60 or so prophecies". What you will have are a mix of biblical quote mines, which are not prophecies, and a few cases of history written as prophecy, we see that in Daniel.
Here are the reasonable standards your prophecies have to meet for you to claim that they have been fulfilled:
Criteria for a true prophecy[edit]
For a statement to be Biblical foreknowledge, it must fit all of the five following criteria:
- It must be accurate. A statement cannot be Biblical foreknowledge if it is not accurate, because knowledge (and thus foreknowledge) excludes inaccurate statements. TLDR: It's true.
- It must be in the Bible. A statement cannot be Biblical foreknowledge if it is not in the Bible, because Biblical by definition foreknowledge can only come from the Bible itself, rather than modern reinterpretations of the text. TLDR: It's in plain words in the Bible.
- It must be precise and unambiguous. A statement cannot be Biblical foreknowledge if meaningless philosophical musings or multiple possible ideas could fulfill the foreknowledge, because ambiguity prevents one from knowing whether the foreknowledge was intentional rather than accidental. TLDR: Vague "predictions" don't count.
- It must be improbable. A statement cannot be Biblical foreknowledge if it reasonably could be the result of a pure guess, because foreknowledge requires a person to actually know something true, while a correct guess doesn't mean that the guesser knows anything. This also excludes contemporary beliefs that happened be true but were believed to be true without solid evidence. TLDR: Lucky guesses don't count.
- It must have been unknown. A statement cannot be Biblical foreknowledge if it reasonably could be the result of an educated guess based off contemporary knowledge, because foreknowledge requires a person to know a statement when it would have been impossible, outside of supernatural power, for that person to know it. TLDR: Ideas of the time don't count.
Biblical prophecies
Do you have an objection to those standards? Are they unreasonable? They seem very reasonable to me. Find something that meets all of those standards and then you can claim to have prophecies.