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Why does god have to be perfect?

FranklinMichaelV.3

Well-Known Member
It is the same God, in my opinion.



Wow. Sometimes, it just isn't worth it...



Based on??


The Jews don't seem to agree, and neither does their scripture. But interpretations happen and it's part of humanities nature to interpret so that it can change.

I may be incorrect, but knowledge is what is attained through experience right, unless if there is another definition used in philosophy that I am unaware of? Is it wrong then to ask what experience would something that is omniscient and omnipotent and omnipresent have gone through to attain such knowledge?

You said that God is sovereign, and no matter what we want we cannot go against the plan. As such we have no free will. One cannot live under sovereign rule and have free will. One can have a will, one may even be given privy to see options, but one cannot actually exercise that will freely. Unless you define free will differently.
 

McBell

Unbound
An example would be to think that things like murder, rape, etc,these things are wrong regardless of who thinks these things are right. If you don't have a transcedent standard of goodness (God), there is no way these things are objective, and therefore moral standards are subjective.

So you have not even one universal absolute moral to offer?
 

Call_of_the_Wild

Well-Known Member
No. (x)◊X->□X is not a theorem in any system of modal logic.

Irrelevant. The statement has truth value. The truth is the truth no matter how many "systems" you want to box it up in.

Do you not notice what you just did there? You say "possibly God exists" is enough for the MOA, because all possibly necessary truths are (true)... Wait, what? I thought you said "possibly God exists", where did possibly necessary come from?

Am I in the twilight zone? If God possibly exists, God is possibly necessary. I must be in the twilight zone.

You must be very tired, or multi-tasking or something, because this is clearly not right. If the MOA only needs "possibly God exists", then surely all possible truths are true in reality? But that can't be right either, because plenty of possible truths are not actual, and thus cannot be necessary.

First off, that isn't what I said, and after all the many times I've said it, I just can't believe you got it all WRONG on purpose. What I said was; "ALL POSSIBLE NECESSARY TRUTHS MUST BE ACTUALLY TRUE". Since we've started these discussions, I've said this at least two dozen times. Now, in the above quote, I noticed you left out "all possible necessary truths"...but instead you rendered what I said to "all possible truths", which COMPLETLEY changes the context of what I said. Of course all possible truths are not actually true...but that is a contingency concept, not a necessary concept. Cmon now.

Since all possibly necessary truths are necessarily true, what the MOA requires is that it is possibly necessary that God exists- not just that its possible that God exists.

Well, yeah....to say that God is possible is to say that God is possibly necessary, because if God is eternal as the argument states, then he IS necessary (if such a being exists). Seriously.

But, again, that its possibly necessary that God exists is not the same as that its possible God exist, and the former is logically equivalent to the conclusion of the argument, and thus is clearly question-begging.

It is funny that you keep saying, since it's not even in question.

:facepalm:

I've refuted the argument elsewhere, both on this thread, and on the link I provided. I've been taking a different tack here, and showing that in addition to that, the argument is simply question-begging.

I will repeat again...

1. If it is possible for God to exist, God exist necessarily
2. God necessarily exists, because it is possible for God to exist

It wasn't question begging in the first place, but since you maintain that it was, there is the same argument, but revised so that once you get to #2, the conclusion is made. So there is no way to dance around it. Same argument, same result. Inescapable.

but if the conclusion must be granted for the conclusion to follow, then what the heck does it prove, really?

The conclusion must be granted if it is true.
 

Call_of_the_Wild

Well-Known Member
The Jews don't seem to agree, and neither does their scripture.

I think that is why I said "in my opinion". I am very well aware of the Jews and their lack of belief in Jesus as the Messiah and such. As long as I have sufficient evidence to believe the historicity of the Resurrection of Jesus...that will continue to carry me a long way regarding who Jesus was and who Yeshua is.

But interpretations happen and it's part of humanities nature to interpret so that it can change.

What I want to know is how Jews intrepret the historicity of Jesus and his Resurrection.

I may be incorrect, but knowledge is what is attained through experience right, unless if there is another definition used in philosophy that I am unaware of?

Not exclusive to experience. To be omniscient is to know all true propositions. Now of course, God doesn't know certain things like what is it like to sin, or what it is like to not be God...these are things that God doesn't know, because these things are something that God CAN'T know.

Is it wrong then to ask what experience would something that is omniscient and omnipotent and omnipresent have gone through to attain such knowledge?

These attributes were never "attained" in the sense of there being a time that God didn't have them...and now he has them. These attributes are part of his very nature, which means he cannot fail to have them and still be considered "God". The #1 question I have is....how can something have existed forever? How can something just exist with any precausal conditions? The question is mind boggling to me.

You said that God is sovereign, and no matter what we want we cannot go against the plan. As such we have no free will.

I remember wrestling with this question when I had a friendly discussion with a guy in the yahoo chat rooms back in the day. He asked "Can I do something contrary to what God already knows I will do?" Kinda the same thing you are saying. So to answer this...let me ask you something...

Do you believe in God? Yes or no?

One cannot live under sovereign rule and have free will. One can have a will, one may even be given privy to see options, but one cannot actually exercise that will freely. Unless you define free will differently.

Do you believe in God? Yes or no?
 

Thana

Lady
Not exclusive to experience. To be omniscient is to know all true propositions. Now of course, God doesn't know certain things like what is it like to sin, or what it is like to not be God...these are things that God doesn't know, because these things are something that God CAN'T know.



These attributes were never "attained" in the sense of there being a time that God didn't have them...and now he has them. These attributes are part of his very nature, which means he cannot fail to have them and still be considered "God". The #1 question I have is....how can something have existed forever? How can something just exist with any precausal conditions? The question is mind boggling to me.



How can he be omniscient and NOT know those things...

He's alpha and omega, First and last, Always been, Always will be.

I think you're a little confused yeah?
 

FranklinMichaelV.3

Well-Known Member
I think that is why I said "in my opinion". I am very well aware of the Jews and their lack of belief in Jesus as the Messiah and such. As long as I have sufficient evidence to believe the historicity of the Resurrection of Jesus...that will continue to carry me a long way regarding who Jesus was and who Yeshua is.



What I want to know is how Jews intrepret the historicity of Jesus and his Resurrection.



Not exclusive to experience. To be omniscient is to know all true propositions. Now of course, God doesn't know certain things like what is it like to sin, or what it is like to not be God...these are things that God doesn't know, because these things are something that God CAN'T know.



These attributes were never "attained" in the sense of there being a time that God didn't have them...and now he has them. These attributes are part of his very nature, which means he cannot fail to have them and still be considered "God". The #1 question I have is....how can something have existed forever? How can something just exist with any precausal conditions? The question is mind boggling to me.



I remember wrestling with this question when I had a friendly discussion with a guy in the yahoo chat rooms back in the day. He asked "Can I do something contrary to what God already knows I will do?" Kinda the same thing you are saying. So to answer this...let me ask you something...

Do you believe in God? Yes or no?



Do you believe in God? Yes or no?

I believe in God, but not the way you believe, I find Christianities attempt to explain God when looked at with our discoveries in modern science (astrophysics and quantum physics, and just plain ol physics) to be sorely lacking in even beginning to scratch the surface of what God is. But it was the doorway for me to learn about loving one another as we love ourselves, and the power of the human spirit given to us by God, so it holds a special place in my heart.

Omniscient isn't, but knowledge is by definition related to experience. One must have experience to have knowledge. An Omniscient being doesn't have knowledge, it would be knowledge as you said, it's nature is knowledge if knowledge is its nature than it has no need to plan.

From what I have seen the Jews don't believe in the historicity of Jesus. At least not as described by the gospels or by Paul.

The lack of mentioning of Jesus outside of the Gospels is one of the reasons, and the Jesus's mentioned in later Jewish writings were not flattering (as Jesus would have been a common name).

I think some hold that if Jesus existed, he was one of the many who claimed to be a messiah and were executed for their trouble. Others find Jesus to probably be a normal guy (a decent preacher) who went off and died and was elevated to Godhood status by his followers.

The only time that we have a historical evidence of Jesus outside of the Gospels is a mentioning by Paul, though Paul's description of the resurrection doesn't mesh with the Gospels, but there's ways to argue around that.
 

Call_of_the_Wild

Well-Known Member
The statement "things that are wrong regardless who thinks they are right" slightly confuses me.

What I mean is; Rape is against the law, right? Now suppose Congress passed a law at which rape is now legal. Now, despite the fact that it is now legal, would it still be objectively wrong? Does its "wrongfulness" transcend the legality of it? So if it is now legal, would it still be objectively wrong, regardless of who thinks it is right?

Now, if you think it would be still wrong, you believe in objective moral values. But if you do, you have to have a transcendent standard by which you based those objective moral values, and I don't see how you (in general) could have this without belief in God.

Now if you DON'T think it would be wrong, then you DON'T believe in objective moral values, so you believe morality is subjective....which can be based on your own moral code (whatever that is, however you personally decide what is considered "right" or "wrong")

Is "Murder is wrong" a factual or true statement?

Is it the same as 2+2=4?

If God exists and he is omnibenevolent as I believe, then yes, "murder is wrong" is as factual as 2+2=4
 

FranklinMichaelV.3

Well-Known Member
What I mean is; Rape is against the law, right? Now suppose Congress passed a law at which rape is now legal. Now, despite the fact that it is now legal, would it still be objectively wrong? Does its "wrongfulness" transcend the legality of it? So if it is now legal, would it still be objectively wrong, regardless of who thinks it is right?

Now, if you think it would be still wrong, you believe in objective moral values. But if you do, you have to have a transcendent standard by which you based those objective moral values, and I don't see how you (in general) could have this without belief in God.

Now if you DON'T think it would be wrong, then you DON'T believe in objective moral values, so you believe morality is subjective....which can be based on your own moral code (whatever that is, however you personally decide what is considered "right" or "wrong")




If God exists and he is omnibenevolent as I believe, then yes, "murder is wrong" is as factual as 2+2=4

Legality doesn't make things wrong or right though it certainly has a role on it.

But while there are "written laws" there are also social laws. Laws that different societies utilize. So is rape wrong, in our society it is. But that is the ruling our society has put forward, it isn't a issue of a legal contract it is a social one.

That is why morality is subjective, it isn't subjective in the sense of "my personal belief" but Societies personal belief. As a society morality is determined and it is subject to change as a society changes.

In fact the reason that certain acts can be considered moral and immoral by certain groups living in the same area, is proof of it's subjectiveness. If morality is objective, it certainly does not appear to be expressed that way :(
 

Call_of_the_Wild

Well-Known Member
I believe in God, but not the way you believe

Ok, now...is there anyone outside of yourself forcing you to believe the way that you do? Yes or no?

, I find Christianities attempt to explain God when looked at with our discoveries in modern science (astrophysics and quantum physics, and just plain ol physics) to be sorely lacking in even beginning to scratch the surface of what God is.

For example?

Omniscient isn't, but knowledge is by definition related to experience.

Some knowledge, but not all knowledge.

One must have experience to have knowledge.

Some knowledge, but not all knowledge.

An Omniscient being doesn't have knowledge, it would be knowledge as you said, it's nature is knowledge if knowledge is its nature than it has no need to plan.

There is no need to plan? LMAO

From what I have seen the Jews don't believe in the historicity of Jesus. At least not as described by the gospels or by Paul.

Then they would have to single handedly refute all historical evidence for the Gospels, Pauls letters, and all of the extra-biblical sources...tough job.

The lack of mentioning of Jesus outside of the Gospels is one of the reasons, and the Jesus's mentioned in later Jewish writings were not flattering (as Jesus would have been a common name).

How many mentionings of King Tut do we have outside of Egypt, yet King Tut existed. Second, we do have mentionings of Jesus outside of the bible. Third, the Gospels are independent books, so they are are four independent sources which attest to the life, death, and Resurrection of Jesus. Fourth, they were all written to within 30-40 years after the events themselves. Fifth, the mention of Jesus was by former skeptics and a couple people who were not Christians or Jews.

So as I said, tough job.

I think some hold that if Jesus existed, he was one of the many who claimed to be a messiah and were executed for their trouble.

Well, that is true!!! Jesus did claim to be the Messiah and he was executed for his trouble. No problems there.

Others find Jesus to probably be a normal guy (a decent preacher) who went off and died and was elevated to Godhood status by his followers.

Fine, if that is what they believe. But none of that is taking in to account the empty tomb, the Resurrection, and the post-mortem appeareances, and the 360 turn around by former skeptics.

The only time that we have a historical evidence of Jesus outside of the Gospels is a mentioning by Paul, though Paul's description of the resurrection doesn't mesh with the Gospels, but there's ways to argue around that.

Jesus was mentioned by Josephus, Tacitus, Pliny the Younger, and his crucifixion was hinted upon by Mara Bar-Serapion. So we have four independent books, two former skeptics, and four non-Christian/non-Jewish sources...plus the testimony of the second generation apostles in the second century who knew the former apostles.

That is a lot of stuff going on there, Frankie.
 

Call_of_the_Wild

Well-Known Member
Legality doesn't make things wrong or right though it certainly has a role on it.

Then what makes things right or wrong?

But while there are "written laws" there are also social laws. Laws that different societies utilize. So is rape wrong, in our society it is. But that is the ruling our society has put forward, it isn't a issue of a legal contract it is a social one.

That is why morality is subjective, it isn't subjective in the sense of "my personal belief" but Societies personal belief. As a society morality is determined and it is subject to change as a society changes.

In fact the reason that certain acts can be considered moral and immoral by certain groups living in the same area, is proof of it's subjectiveness. If morality is objective, it certainly does not appear to be expressed that way :(

I believe in objective morality, you don't :clap
 

FranklinMichaelV.3

Well-Known Member
Ok, now...is there anyone outside of yourself forcing you to believe the way that you do? Yes or no?



For example?



Some knowledge, but not all knowledge.



Some knowledge, but not all knowledge.



There is no need to plan? LMAO



Then they would have to single handedly refute all historical evidence for the Gospels, Pauls letters, and all of the extra-biblical sources...tough job.



How many mentionings of King Tut do we have outside of Egypt, yet King Tut existed. Second, we do have mentionings of Jesus outside of the bible. Third, the Gospels are independent books, so they are are four independent sources which attest to the life, death, and Resurrection of Jesus. Fourth, they were all written to within 30-40 years after the events themselves. Fifth, the mention of Jesus was by former skeptics and a couple people who were not Christians or Jews.

So as I said, tough job.



Well, that is true!!! Jesus did claim to be the Messiah and he was executed for his trouble. No problems there.



Fine, if that is what they believe. But none of that is taking in to account the empty tomb, the Resurrection, and the post-mortem appeareances, and the 360 turn around by former skeptics.



Jesus was mentioned by Josephus, Tacitus, Pliny the Younger, and his crucifixion was hinted upon by Mara Bar-Serapion. So we have four independent books, two former skeptics, and four non-Christian/non-Jewish sources...plus the testimony of the second generation apostles in the second century who knew the former apostles.

That is a lot of stuff going on there, Frankie.

No, all knowledge is gained through experience. That is the definition of knowledge. God would have to be knowledge if God is to be omniscient.

Such, well the discussion of causality and effect (I made a thread about it and Legion had some discussions about it)

The vastness of the Universe (the description of Genesis does not encompass the Universe, though one can squeeze to make it fit, but the term heaven reference is not the same as Universe).

We have King Tuts body, that helps a bit lol.

What historical evidence is mentioned in the Gospels?

Josephus's mentioning is interpolation and nowhere else does he mention Christ, Pliney the Younger doesn't mention Jesus he mentions Christians, which given the time of his living 67 to 112 A.D. Giving him active work around probably idk...lets go with 87 and up, he was certainly not a contemporary of Jesus. Mara never mentions Jesus or Christ, a lot of crucifixions happened though so it's hard to say that "hey the guy he hinted at is the same guy in the Gospels". Though while his mention can be alluded to Jesus, he does not talk about the resurrection. Tactitus as well mentions the Crucifixion, but not the resurrection. The resurrection remains told by the Gospels and Paul, not by any extra-biblical sources.

the accepted facts by scholars:

Jesus was baptized by John the Baptist. He called disciples. He had a controversy at the Temple. Jesus was crucified by the Romans near Jerusalem.[7][44]
Jesus was a Galilean. His activities were confined to Galilee and Judea. After his death his disciples continued. Some of his disciples were persecuted.[7][44]


Again the empty tomb are found only in the Gospel. They (the Gospels) are not independent. The only one that I would go as far to say is independent is John, It is pretty evident that Matthew and Luke copied from Mark. And even in the copying you get issues, such as Matthew and Luke giving differing genealogies but again you can argue against the Jews for how tribal lineage is given shrug. Then you have to account for the Gospels not having actual names. We have no idea who Matthew, Mark, Luke and John were, the names were ascribed to them later in the 2nd century if I remember correctly. Prior the authors were anonymous.

But Even then you get slightly differing accounts. For instance Acts say that Judas was in the field that he bought he fell,and burst his bowels.

Now people argue that this isn't a contradiction, which you can make the argument that he hung himself and then he fell.

That isn't where the contradiction happens though. It happens in the line preceding in Matthew, Judas tossed the money to the ground exclaimed that he had betrayed innocent blood and fled to go hung himself as the priests took the money and went and bought a field. In Acts Judas however used the money to by the field and then (fell or hung himself and fell).

The post mortem appearances are also an interesting one. According to Paul the first person that Jesus appeared to was James, according to the Gospels the first person Jesus appeared to was Mary Magdalene (except in Mark where it ends with the empty Tomb).

But there are arguments abound for all of it.

The main reason though I believe that the Jews do not agree with Jesus is not just the messiah declaration, it is the Son of God declaration which goes directly against what was said in Deuteronomy.
 
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Enai de a lukal

Well-Known Member
Irrelevant. The statement has truth value.

You're right- (x)◊X->□X does have a truth-value; false. Can't see why? Plug in some values for X.

X= snow is purple

If it is possible that snow is purple, then it is necessary that snow is purple.

Clearly that doesn't work. Try any other value for X you care to pick. That's why its not a theorem in any system of modal logic.

If God possibly exists, God is possibly necessary. I must be in the twilight zone.
Apparently you are, because that doesn't follow. If you think it does, please provide a formal deduction proving as much.

First off, that isn't what I said, and after all the many times I've said it, I just can't believe you got it all WRONG on purpose. What I said was; "ALL POSSIBLE NECESSARY TRUTHS MUST BE ACTUALLY TRUE". Since we've started these discussions, I've said this at least two dozen times. Now, in the above quote, I noticed you left out "all possible necessary truths"...but instead you rendered what I said to "all possible truths"
No. This was your quote-

Oh my goodness. "It is possible that God exists" IS enough for the MOA, because all possible necessary truths must exist in reality as a fact.

If all the MOA needs is that it is possible that God exists, NOT that it is possible that God exists necessarily (i.e. possibly necessary that God exists), then (x)◊X->□X must be a valid inference in the system of modal logic you're using. It is not a theorem in any system of modal logic, and so you need "it is possibly necessary that God exists/it is possible God exists necessarily".

Well, yeah....to say that God is possible is to say that God is possibly necessary, because if God is eternal as the argument states, then he IS necessary
No, that doesn't follow, and eternal=/= necessary. Do you not even know what "necessary" means?

Necessary= its negation is self-contradictory/ it is true in all possible worlds
Eternal= lasting or existing forever (hint: nothing to do with modality)

Yep, that about sums it up.

I will repeat again...
Groan... How have you not figured out that a lack of repetition is not your problem here?

1. If it is possible for God to exist, God exist necessarily
2. God necessarily exists, because it is possible for God to exist
Prove this, formally. It doesn't follow, it is not a valid inference in modal logic, so unless you can prove it, this is completely unsubstantiated. The necessity of P does not follow from the possibility of P; the MOA needs, as a premise, that it is possible that God exists necessarily, not that its merely possible (not possibly necessary) that God exist.
 

cottage

Well-Known Member
It doesn't matter, cot...the kalam...ontological....anything you want to discuss.

Unusually for me I now find I’ve got time on my hands, waiting for an operation on my spine as the result of a motorcycle racing accident back in July. We should continue with Plantinga’s modal argument, as I think there’s still a fair bit of mileage left in the debate, and I see no reason why we can’t plod on with this one as well?

Lets discuss it.

I first need to know your objections?


I don't remember.

You asked: "Where did it come from?". But it didn't come from any place or source!


Well, if you agree that it does, that could hardly be a defeater of the argument against an actually infinite past based on the argument I briefly laid out.

I said: “The world is self-existent, i.e. contingent matter sustained within the world by an eternal, immutable quality.”


You don't see any faults because I haven't really discussed it with you yet haha.

Okay then please let me have them?
 
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cottage

Well-Known Member
Well, if you agree that God COULD have sufficient reasons for permitting evil, then there is really no argument from evil, now is there?

Then we’re agreed that Plantinga’s specific formulation fails?
So, God is malevolent. And while omnibenevolence isn’t necessary to the concept of omnipotence or creation, it is very arguable that it is necessary as a property of greatness. The concept of a Creator Being that is all-loving and benevolent is greater in that it has a further quality over a Creator Being that is not. And of course it is essential aspect of the Christian faith, that God so loved us that he sacrificed his only begotten son etc.


Umm, cot...what are you talking about? I said ALL POSSIBLE NECESSARY TRUTHS MUST BE NECESSARILY TRUE (caps are for emphasis). That proposition applies to ANYTHING that is possibly necessarily true, not just specifically God. It is a religiously neutral statement that applies to ANYTHING that is possibly necessarily true...so unless you are saying that I am "begging the question" for everything that it applies to, then I am not begging the question for anything.


I’ll explain…
“All possible necessary truths must be necessarily true.” No problem with that. (You don’t need the capitals; I’m reasonably adept at following a discussion without them)

Here is your argument:

If all possible necessary truths must be necessarily true (using the ubiquitous comparison of 2 + 2 = 4, for example), then nothing can be conceived of as not existing necessarily if it is necessarily existent.

But that is specious!

Necessary truths such 2 + 2 = 4 are not synonymous with existence; the former is an abstract concept while the latter concerns matters of fact and experience. And note also that it is not the equivalent of saying “nothing can be conceived of as necessarily true unless it necessarily true”, for whilst 2 + 2 = 4 is true in my mind, whether I publically assent to it or not, there is no necessary existential truth that is intuitively certain or immune to contradiction.

But in any case: If everything that is possibly necessary true is necessarily true, then nothing can be conceived as necessarily existing unless it is necessarily existent. But there is no necessarily existent thing imposing itself upon my mind and there is therefore nothing existing necessarily. So if it doesn’t then it isn’t! And if it isn’t then it’s nothing! Simple!


Wait a minute, what? It was an analogy, cot. An analogy that I gave regarding how something can't be possibly necessarily true, but actually false. It was a good example too...and I would like a direct response to it instead of dances around it. Second, saying that God isn't demonstrable in possible experience is something I want evidence for.


Your first point I’ve answered above, and it doesn’t matter whether it is an analogy or not. As for your second point, I would ask you to explain how a necessary truth is demonstrable in experience if every matter of fact can be denied without contradiction?

Cmon now cot. You admit that mathematical truths are necessary truths, right? So 7x7=49 is a necessary truth, right? So it is possible for 7 to go in to 49 7 times, right? So that possibility makes it necessarily true, right? It is possible for 7x7=49, therefore, the answer to 7x7 is a necessary 49, right? Get with the program, people.

Of course necessity implies possibility in logical propositions. If two plus two equals four, which it does necessarily, then of course it is possible that 2 + 2 = 4, but frivolously so; for a definitional statement must agree with itself. But in experience there is no necessity, a thing is possible or it is actual and a thing that is actual is also possible. For example it is raining at the moment but it is possible for it to be not raining. In the case of our 2 + 2 = 4 proposition it isn’t possible that 2 +2 = 4 can be false; in other words the question of the possibility of it not being true cannot arise. But if it is raining it will not be necessary for we can conceive the possibility of it not raining without involving a contradiction or some other absurdity. So properly speaking possibility belongs to experience and necessity to pure concepts, and no a priori proposition can demonstrate a factual truth.
 

Enai de a lukal

Well-Known Member
@cottage-

I’ll explain…
“All possible necessary truths must be necessarily true.” No problem with that. (You don’t need the capitals; I’m reasonably adept at following a discussion without them)

Here is your argument:

If all possible necessary truths must be necessarily true (using the ubiquitous comparison of 2 + 2 = 4, for example), then nothing can be conceived of as not existing necessarily if it is necessarily existent.

But that is specious!

Necessary truths such 2 + 2 = 4 are not synonymous with existence; the former is an abstract concept while the latter concerns matters of fact and experience. And note also that it is not the equivalent of saying “nothing can be conceived of as necessarily true unless it necessarily true”, for whilst 2 + 2 = 4 is true in my mind, whether I publically assent to it or not, there is no necessary existential truth that is intuitively certain or immune to contradiction.
Unless I'm misunderstanding you, I think you're mistaking the form of the argument here a little bit, although it certainly doesn't help Call of the Wild; he doesn't need to say that necessary truths are somehow existent- or that the matter turns on the fact that the purportedly necessary truth is an existential claim; the point is that any proposition A such that A is necessary, is true in all possible worlds. So if A happens to be an existential claim, such as "God exists" or "Lebron James exists", and it is necessary (forgetting for the moment how or why it is necessary, just granting that it is), then that entity exists in every possible world. The same can be said for possibly necessary truths- in certain systems of modal logic, in particular S5; this is just a matter of fact about certain modal logics, and Call of the Wild is correct on this point- so far as it goes (i.e. not very far). The reason is that, in S5, it is a theorem that A->□◊A- (if A, then it is necessary that A is possible); from which it can be derived that ◊□A->A (if A is possibly necessary, then A), because "A is possibly necessary" is equivalent to "A is necessary". So, granted the acceptability of S5 (and that is by no means a given, for precisely the reason that such inferences as this are not intuitively valid), this much of the argument is correct- if it is possible that God exists necessarily, then God exists necessarily, and God exists.

But is it possible that God exists necessarily? In other words, is it possibly necessary that God exists?

Superficially, it sounds like we're just asking whether its possible that God exists- could it be that God exists necessarily? It sounds innocuous enough; and that is precisely the trickery this argument relies on! (in part, aside from its more general, fatal flaws, discussed elsewhere)... We simply don't have a clear intuitive grasp of possible necessity, and (the untutored reader) tends to initially conceive it more as similar to possibility than necessity; but make no mistake, "X is possibly necessary" is logically equivalent to "X is necessary". So rather than be sneaky and ask whether it is possible that God exists necessarily, let's just come out and ask the real question- does God exist necessarily? That is what this crucial premise of the argument boils down to, and clearly it is question-begging. Darnit, eh? :D

(and RE that question, you're surely right that no existential claim which is possible is necessary, because necessary truths are those propositions whose negations are self-contradictory- and "God does not exist" is NOT self-contradictory, therefore "God exists" is not a necessary truth, and since it is not a necessary truth, it is not a possibly necessary truth either! So much for the "victorious" modal ontological argument- all it simply is is assuming the conclusion it seeks to prove! :cool:)
 

Call_of_the_Wild

Well-Known Member
No, all knowledge is gained through experience. That is the definition of knowledge. God would have to be knowledge if God is to be omniscient.

No that isn't the definition of knowledge. The definition of knowledge is simply "to KNOW". That says nothing about experience. Now on the original issue of how can God be omniscient....I don't know, but if such a being exists that attribute is just as necessary as his existence.

The vastness of the Universe (the description of Genesis does not encompass the Universe, though one can squeeze to make it fit, but the term heaven reference is not the same as Universe).

The "heavens" in Genesis 1 is synonymous with universe . Second, the OT consistently speaks of the heavens "stretching" as we currently know it is expanding til this very day.

We have King Tuts body, that helps a bit lol.

Completely missed the point

What historical evidence is mentioned in the Gospels?

Lets keep pretending like the Bible/Gospels dont mention names, locations, and time frames. Let's keep on..

Josephus's mentioning is interpolation and nowhere else does he mention Christ

But if you take out the interpolation you still have the person of Jesus, just without the theological implications that was added.

, Pliney the Younger doesn't mention Jesus he mentions Christians, which given the time of his living 67 to 112 A.D.

Yes he does....he said the Christians got together to chant verses in honor of "Christ as as if to a God". Clear mention.

Giving him active work around probably idk...lets go with 87 and up, he was certainly not a contemporary of Jesus.

Well, judging by the fact that Jesus died around 33 AD, and your given date is still within 50 years of the crucifixion, just like the assasination of JFK was 50 years ago and people are still talking about it til this day, just like Pliny the Younger did in even the date you gave.

Mara never mentions Jesus or Christ, a lot of crucifixions happened though so it's hard to say that "hey the guy he hinted at is the same guy in the Gospels".

He said the Jews executed their "wise king" and that he was executed due to the new law he laid down. Sounds like Jesus to me. But I understand this is less circumstantial than the others.

Though while his mention can be alluded to Jesus, he does not talk about the resurrection. Tactitus as well mentions the Crucifixion, but not the resurrection. The resurrection remains told by the Gospels and Paul, not by any extra-biblical sources.

Jesus' mention by Tacitus is more than alluded to, it is implied. And no he doesn't talk about the Resurrection, so what? We have other historical evidence for the Resurrection, such as the belief of the disciples of the post-mortem appeareances and the belief of former skeptics.

Jesus was baptized by John the Baptist. He called disciples. He had a controversy at the Temple. Jesus was crucified by the Romans near Jerusalem.[7][44]
Jesus was a Galilean. His activities were confined to Galilee and Judea. After his death his disciples continued. Some of his disciples were persecuted.[7][44]

Now notice what you said, you said the above is facts accepted by scholars...notice in there it is stated that "some of his disciples were persecuted". Why would they risk persecution for something that wasn't true??? Makes no sense. Not only that, but everyhing in the above all points to a historically factual Jesus. The only thing missing is the Resurrection and it is no surprise to me that it stops short of that, because that would just be to much.

Again the empty tomb are found only in the Gospel.

It wouldn't make any sense for the disciples to believe in the Resurrection if Jesus' body was still in the tomb, now would it?

They (the Gospels) are not independent. The only one that I would go as far to say is independent is John, It is pretty evident that Matthew and Luke copied from Mark.

Yes they are. Matthew has double the number of chapters as Mark, so how could he do that much copying from Mark? Maybe he did copy some stuff by I mean c’mon, all three of those particular Gospels have similarities, but they also have their differences.

Then you have to account for the Gospels not having actual names.
We have no idea who Matthew, Mark, Luke and John were, the names were ascribed to them later in the 2nd century if I remember correctly. Prior the authors were anonymous.

Well, technically speaking, we have no idea who wrote ANY ANCIENT book or document because neither one of us were there. This goes for anything in history, not just the Gospels. Second, the authorship of the Gospels was not in dispute among the early church Fathers, and they attributed the names to the books as the same authors were attributed them to.

But Even then you get slightly differing accounts. For instance Acts say that Judas was in the field that he bought he fell,and burst his bowels.
Now people argue that this isn't a contradiction, which you can make the argument that he hung himself and then he fell.

I mean, yeah. If someone gets shot and bleeds to death…if you say “he died because he was shot”…and I say “he died because he bleed to death”…big deal…both are accurate.

That isn't where the contradiction happens though. It happens in the line preceding in Matthew, Judas tossed the money to the ground exclaimed that he had betrayed innocent blood and fled to go hung himself as the priests took the money and went and bought a field. In Acts Judas however used the money to by the field and then (fell or hung himself and fell).

http://carm.org/bible-difficulties/potters-field

The post mortem appearances are also an interesting one. According to Paul the first person that Jesus appeared to was James, according to the Gospels the first person Jesus appeared to was Mary Magdalene (except in Mark where it ends with the empty Tomb).

But there are arguments abound for all of it.

Regardless of who saw him first the fact of the matter is clear, he was SEEN post-mortem. That is the focal point, not who wants to have bragging rights based on who saw him first.

The main reason though I believe that the Jews do not agree with Jesus is not just the messiah declaration, it is the Son of God declaration which goes directly against what was said in Deuteronomy.

Well, Paul was a Jew and he believed in Jesus, despite what was said in Deuteronomy. So I will go with what Paul thinks about the matter.
 
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