Salek Atesh
Active Member
Premise A: Kosher milk must be derived from kosher animals.
Premise B: Human milk is permitted.
Therefore?
Premise A is wrong. Will you just read the bible all ready?? This thread is becoming nothing but you saying obviously wrong things and being corrected by the many religion nerds on this site. If you want to try using this argument in a debate, I'd advise doing it on a forum that isn't crawling with scripture geeks.
The bible says anything derived from a kosher animal is kosher, THUS, cow's milk is kosher. It does NOT say kosher milk comes from kosher animals.
Here's my question. Human milk is specified by the bible as being kosher. But the bible already had a law stating that products from kosher animals were kosher.
Tell me, then, if human meat was kosher as you claim, why would the writers have needed to specify human milk as being kosher?? It would've already been covered under the animal products clause, so there would be no need whatsoever to specify breastmilk as kosher.
Remember, "kosher" is inclusive and not exclusive.
The logic puzzle here states:
IF the meat is kosher THEN the milk is kosher.
Human milk is kosher.
But any logician will tell you, you cannot derive "human meat is kosher" from those axioms, if-then statements can't be bent that way.
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