Wait. Does Aristotle's work count as Divine Revelation? Can you substantiate that? Did the Old Testament Israelites have access to Aristotelian Taxonomy when they were drawing up The Good Lord's dietary restrictions or are you introducing a red herring?
Seriously? No, Null. Aristotle does NOT count as Divine Revelation, nor is he the first person to classify animals this way. However, for reasons I don't know, he is given credit for the way the ancient world thought of the division of animals.
Socrates didn't invent the Socratic Method for learning, either, but he was given credit for it.
"Creeping animals" was a separate classification? Are there creeping air animals?
Never mind that your summary of "The Aristotelian Taxonomy" appears to be flawed:
"Of land animals some are furnished with wings, such as birds and bees, and these are so furnished in different ways one from another; others are furnished with feet. Of the animals that are furnished with feet some walk, some creep, and some wriggle. But no creature is able only to move by flying, as the fish is able only to swim, for the animals with leathern wings can walk; the bat has feet and the seal has imperfect feet. " ~ Aristotle ("
The History of Animals")
Given that Aristotle is here classifying "birds and bees" as land animals, would you care to explain what an "air animal" was according to "The Aristotelian Taxonomy?" Once you've accomplished that, please feel free to explain how all of this dovetails with Old Testament dietary restrictions. Thanks.
Wow. You really are being purposely obtuse.
In Leviticus 11, the separation between various animals are 1) Creatures on Land, 2) Creatures of the Sea, 3) Birds (with wings), and 4) Flying Insects.
Aristotelian Taxonomy came closest to being similar. It wasn't meant to be the definitive taxonomy, but close enough to be reasonable to give it a name.
Q. - The only kosher milk is milk derived from kosher animals, correct? Does it follow that observant Jews don't breastfeed their infants?
No, it doesn't follow. This is because, no matter which taxonomy you use to describe the the animals of the ancient world, humans are always separate and apart from animals.
It would be more correct to say that all kosher animal milk products must derive from kosher animals. Humans are different, so mother's milk is in a different category.
And it is. Unless I'm mistaken, the Shulchan Aruch treats human milk like almond and coconut milk, or in short, "not in the category of being milk or meat."
Can you demonstrate that humans were classified as animals in the Old Testament?
Nope.
Wouldn't humans need to possess hooves for the rules concerning the nature of hooves to be applicable?
Nope.
Indeed. You've failed to demonstrate that humans are classified as animals in the scriptures.
Yup. And that's why it wasn't until other people mentioned the other laws about Kosher animals that I joined that bandwagon.
You've also failed to demonstrate that kosher restrictions are in any way intended to apply to humans. If (as you've asserted ... but failed to substantiate) humans aren't kosher, you'll need to explain why there is no prohibition against the consumption of human milk in the Bible. Thanks for playing.
Because mother's milk is different, and always has been.
However, I get the feeling that you will take even this and twist it, because you aren't really interested in the answer, but are having fun at our expense. I don't look forward to further playing.