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Why God allows Evil

Koldo

Outstanding Member
Why does He allow evil?
That is the mantra that several, not to say many, atheists usually point out, whenever they want to underline the Christian doctrine contradictions.

Why does He do that? Because He is not a dictator.
God's Order is not any different than politics.
There is the party of Good, led by Jesus. And there is the party of evil, led by Satan.

There are Jesus' servants and there are Lucifer's servants. They belong to two different parties.
As Matthew 13,49 says, the wicked and the just. The first fight for the sake of good, the second for the sake of evil.
So if He were a dictator, He would prevent evil people from having a say.
He would prevent them from joining "politics". From doing evil.

He does not do that because
1) He is not a dictator
2) He respects people's free will
3) He hopes they can choose the party of Good by themselves


It is Satan that would like to be a dictator by killing all the good people, and ruling Earth with his wicked politicians .
But he is not allowed to do that. He is forced to respect democracy, as God does.

How about MY own free will to choose to not be a victim?
 

John53

I go leaps and bounds
Premium Member
The reality is, there is no one monolith in any religion, though it's true religions are organised in some way or the other.

Can't add anything other than I agree

When I asked a question from an atheistic paradigm, it does not have to be from an organised doctrine. It is from a world view. Suffering is not necessarily evil to be attributed to a God. That's the reason to question the question of Evil from an atheistic paradigm.

I don't attribute evil to any God. I'm saying the fact that evil exists is strong evidence to me that there is no loving God.

I don't know what is the dictionary definition is. If evil is "immoral", then what is the standard of immoral from an atheistic paradigm? Where is the stem?

I don't really understand your question. Like I said I am not familiar with the word "paradigm", I have seen it used and checked its definition but it's not a word I've ever used. And I'm not sure what you mean by "stem". I'm guessing you are using it as a synonym for "source" but I could be wrong.
 

Pudding

Well-Known Member
Why does He allow evil?
That is the mantra that several, not to say many, atheists usually point out, whenever they want to underline the Christian doctrine contradictions.

Why does He do that? Because He is not a dictator.
God's Order is not any different than politics.
There is the party of Good, led by Jesus. And there is the party of evil, led by Satan.

There are Jesus' servants and there are Lucifer's servants. They belong to two different parties.
As Matthew 13,49 says, the wicked and the just. The first fight for the sake of good, the second for the sake of evil.
So if He were a dictator, He would prevent evil people from having a say.
He would prevent them from joining "politics". From doing evil.

He does not do that because
1) He is not a dictator
2) He respects people's free will
3) He hopes they can choose the party of Good by themselves


It is Satan that would like to be a dictator by killing all the good people, and ruling Earth with his wicked politicians .
But he is not allowed to do that. He is forced to respect democracy, as God does.
So if I was to prevent a child being tortured I'm a dictator?
No, you would be a savior. Because you chose good. The party of the good.

But God cannot and will not force men to choose good, by stopping them from doing evil.
According to the op's logic:

When a person is in a situation where he can prevent a child being tortured by a violent father...

If he choose to save the child, then he is a saviour. The action "to save the child" is choose to do good. People who choose to do good is the party of good. The party of good will choose to do good.

Because he violates the violent father's freewill to torture the child, therefor he is a dictator. By violates the violent father's freewill to torture the child, he disrespect the violent father's freewill to torture the child.

If he choose Not to save the child, then he is Not the party of good, because he choose Not to do good.


When God is in a situation where he can prevent a child being tortured by a violent father...

God will always choose Not to save the child, because saving the child would violate the violent father's freewill to torture the child. Because God is not a dictator, because God respects the violent father's freewill to torture the child, so God will not save the child, so God will allow the violent father to torture the child.

The action "to save the child" is choose to do good. A God who choose to do good is the party of good. The party of good will choose to do good.

But since God will always choose Not to save the child, then God is Not the party of good, because God choose Not to do good.

3) He hopes they can choose the party of Good by themselves
God hopes people can choose the party of Good by themselves?

Aren't God suppose to be all-knowing in the sense that he is aware of the past, present, and future?

If God is all-knowing, then before he creates any human he already know whether or not anyone will choose the party of Good by themselves.

Does God hopes those people "who God already knows will Not choose the party of good by themselves" to choose the party of good by themselves?

Does God hopes those people "who God already knows will choose the party of good by themselves" to choose the party of good by themselves?
 
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Evangelicalhumanist

"Truth" isn't a thing...
Premium Member
That's exactly what I am talking about in the OP.:)

He won't stop them because it is like He forced them to choose good, doing that.
It would be dictatorial. As dictatorial as preventing someone from voting the party they like.
The problem with that "analysis" is that it totally, 100% ignores the experience of the victim -- who one would have thought was just as much in care of an omnipotent deity. That victim, as I'm sure you will notice, is given no such opportunity to exercise any free will at all, or if so, only the freedom to cry out in agony. Not much freedom there, I'm afraid.

Were I omniscient and omnipotent, I'm pretty sure I could work out how to resolve both sides.
 

Estro Felino

Believer in free will
Premium Member
The problem with that "analysis" is that it totally, 100% ignores the experience of the victim -- who one would have thought was just as much in care of an omnipotent deity. That victim, as I'm sure you will notice, is given no such opportunity to exercise any free will at all, or if so, only the freedom to cry out in agony. Not much freedom there, I'm afraid.

Were I omniscient and omnipotent, I'm pretty sure I could work out how to resolve both sides.

That is a very good point.
But what about all those people who could help the victim and did nothing?
You need no miracles to help victims.
 

idea

Question Everything
That is a very good point.
But what about all those people who could help the victim and did nothing?
You need no miracles to help victims.

As someone who has had to deal with child abuse from a previously respected religious leader - know pedophiles are quite good at covering their tracks, at hiding what they do. Victims are groomed, are drugged, are young and naive, and do not ask for help - do not understand. Betrayal trauma - when trauma comes at the hands of a provider or authority figure - messes up the Victims head. It is very difficult to convict, very difficult to fight. If "god" was loving, pedophiles would not be able to manipulate Victims and hide their actions so easily. No one helps, because no one else knows what is going on in most cases.

Victims pray for help, their prayers are not answered.
 

firedragon

Veteran Member
Can't add anything other than I agree



I don't attribute evil to any God. I'm saying the fact that evil exists is strong evidence to me that there is no loving God.



I don't really understand your question. Like I said I am not familiar with the word "paradigm", I have seen it used and checked its definition but it's not a word I've ever used. And I'm not sure what you mean by "stem". I'm guessing you are using it as a synonym for "source" but I could be wrong.

What is evil in your paradigm? Is it suffering? Do you make a distinction between suffering out of natural causes and suffering due to intentional causes?

Are both of them "Evil"?

(Generally, evil is attributed to a metaphysical discourse. But it seems like you use it synonymously with human suffering).
 

John53

I go leaps and bounds
Premium Member
What is evil in your paradigm? Is it suffering? Do you make a distinction between suffering out of natural causes and suffering due to intentional causes?

Are both of them "Evil"?

(Generally, evil is attributed to a metaphysical discourse. But it seems like you use it synonymously with human suffering).

Suffering can be a result of evil but it's not evil.
 
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