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Why Morality cannot come from God

blü 2

Veteran Member
Premium Member
Blü, with your philosophical readings you act like this is a foreign concept.

I am saying that objective morality is theorized. Are you really not aware of papers, books and theories regarding objective morality?
To be objective, it has to exist independently of the concept of it.

If that's wrong then I have no idea what 'objective' means here, especially in contrast to 'subjective'.

Genetic moral tendencies, which are easily demonstrated eg child nurture and protection, are simply the result of evolution. However, I've never heard them used in a religious context. Is that what you mean? I'd have said that they existed independently of any concept of morality and are moral only because humans (eg me) think they are.

Otherwise, it would be helpful if you start with that example of a moral rule with objective existence which I asked you for.
 
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shunyadragon

shunyadragon
Premium Member
Lol. Is that what you have?

I am not saying an objective morality exists. I am saying it is not an anachronism. You are the ones making strange claims that have zero support. You are the one who is trying to blur the line between two concepts that have long been believed to be mutually exclusive.

Contradiction. if it does not exist it is not objective. It has been believed by Christians only based on the belief that "morals come from the Christian God."
 
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Curious George

Veteran Member
To be objective, it has to exist independently of the concept of it.

If that's wrong then I have no idea what 'objective' means here, especially in contrast to 'subjective'.

Genetic moral tendencies, which are easily demonstrated eg child nurture and protection, are simply the result of evolution. However, I've never heard them used in a religious context. Is that what you mean? I'd have said that they existed independently of any concept of morality and are moral only because humans (eg me) think they are.

Otherwise, it would be helpful if you start with that example of a moral rule with objective existence which I asked you for.
You have no concept of what the phrase objective morality means?
 

Curious George

Veteran Member
Contradiction. if it does not exist it is not objective. It has been believed by Christians only based on the belief that "morals come from the Christian God."
What?

You are on some strange tangent. Objective morality has a truth value. If I said that it is wrong to stab a woman in the neck for helping her children would you say that this is not necessarily true?

In what way is it not necessarily true?

Do some people think this is necessarily true?

If so then you can understand objective morality. Objective morality suggest that there is a universal truth to some moral claims.

If you are going to say that morals have no truth value in that they cannot necessarily be true you are arguing that they are not objective.
 

Thief

Rogue Theologian
for most of my years I have called God.....the Almighty
and I have posted many many times the term .....almighty.....is self explanatory

bigger, faster, stronger, more intelligent and greatly experienced
if God failed any of these superlatives.....He would not be God

odd it is .....I never thought to use the word.......good

even though it is written.....
....no one is good but the Father
 
Um, no. The laws of physics determine whether the design was good or bad and thereby whether a particular part is good or bad. The designer used those laws of physics in an attempt to make a good design.



And yes, a pot that is created with intelligence and moral agency *would* have the right to question the maker.

This is a common answer with atheist. But it always avoids the inevitable. There is a designer who created all that you are, see and experience.The designer determined the laws of physics. Thus its inescapable. The designer chooses what he wishes. Right and wrong
 

blü 2

Veteran Member
Premium Member
You have no concept of what the phrase objective morality means?
Not if the words bear their ordinary meanings, no. Tell me how morality can be objective.

And, for the third time, please give me an example of a moral rule with objective existence.

Or, as I suspect, aren't there any?
 

Etritonakin

Well-Known Member
There is a serious logical problem with theistic objective morality. Suppose one states that "God is good." There are only two possibilities implied by this statement. Either the person stating that "God is good" is appealing to "good" as a characteristic outside of God, and thus, the person is effectively asserting that a higher standard of morality exists outside of God, and is judging God by that standard. Thus, God is not the arbiter of morals, rather, his actions are being evaluated as being moral based on a moral standard outside of him. If, on the other hand (and this is the only other possibility), the person stating "God is good" means that "moral goodness" is defined by God's actions, then God is an entirely amoral being. Since "Good" is defined by his actions, then by definition, everything he does must be good, and, therefore, he can do anything, and it will always be good, thus he has no choice between right and wrong, and, hence, he is amoral. In either of the two cases, we have a serious logical problem for theists who state that morality comes from God.

If God always existed -whatever that might mean -then God could not have been responsible for his own most basic nature.
He would, however, be responsible for any development/creation he has accomplished.

If God is everything aware of itself, then basic logic is inherent -and specific morality would be based on how that logic was manipulated to create. Good is based on the logic which is God's most basic nature, but good comes from God personally inasmuch as he was actively and consciously involved in creating the present state.

The morality which applies to gender and marriage, for example, would not be an issue as such if we did not have gender and did not marry -so as the creation changes, the specific morality necessary changes -but the most basic logic which applies to all things never changes, and will govern all states.
 

It Aint Necessarily So

Veteran Member
Premium Member
I don't think there's such a thing as objective morality anyway. If there is, no one knows what it is, since no one has ever given me an example of a moral rule that's objectively correct. Indeed, since such a rule is a concept, an abstraction, about proper behavior, how could a moral rule exist independently of the brain that holds the concept? (Take the number 2 as an example of a abstract concept with no real counterpart. That's the reason you don't trip over uninstantiated 2s on your morning walk. Or stub your toe on moral rules with objective existence.)

Yours is the definition of objective morality (or objective anything) that I use as well. Objective relates to the word object, and an object is a thing outside of the mind that can in principle be apprehended by the minds.

To me, the phrase objective morality means essentially the same thing as absolute morality, but both are very different from universal morality, which can be purely subjective notwithstanding a consensus if the heads of those moral agents are the only place this moral value lives..


Either a moral statement has truth value or it does not.

It can be subjectively true - true for me or true for you - but not objectively true.

Moral statements are always opinions that cannot be demonstrated. You can say that slavery is wrong, but you cannot demonstrate it. You can demonstrate that it steals a persons freedom and labor, and subjects the slave to situations such as having spouses and children sold off, and beatings. Those are objective truths. They are there in physical reality for all to see.

A person with a healthy sense of empathy and compassion will object, but he cannot argue that he is correct - that his opinion is demonstrably true. A sociopath witnessing the same circumstance might be indifferent to the plight of the slave. If that sociopath were a slave owner, and you went to him telling him that he is wrong, and that that was not merely an opinion, but true in some objective sense the way that it is true that the sun warms our planet

The slaver might ask me to prove that he has the truth, but the person with the conscience won't be able to do it. The best he can do is to say that it pains him to witness somebody being treated in such a manner, and the sociopath could then rightly say that that is his subjective perception, and that his own is different, and the sociopath would be correct.

So the empath lines up everybody he can find, and they all agree with him to the slaver that slavery is wrong, and the soiciopath deals with them one by one as he did the first empath, arriving at the same conclusion in each case: That's your subjective reality, not mine.

Even in the unlikely event that they win over the sociopath and the consensus becomes unanimous that slavery is wrong, all that we have is what can be called a universal moral value until somebody comes along that disagrees. At no point does this value become objectively real as Blu defines the term. It does not exist outside of minds, and if all of those minds perished, so would that moral value, at least until somebody else came along and declared it as his subjective value.

Objective morality has a truth value. If I said that it is wrong to stab a woman in the neck for helping her children would you say that this is not necessarily true? In what way is it not necessarily true? Do some people think this is necessarily true? If so then you can understand objective morality. Objective morality suggest that there is a universal truth to some moral claims.

I would say that it is true for me. It is not necessarily try for the psychopath., and I think you are conflating objective truth and universal truth as defined above.

If you are going to say that morals have no truth value in that they cannot necessarily be true you are arguing that they are not objective.

Yes. Exactly, provided that by truth we are talking about objective truth - that which is true whether minds exist to know it or not.- and not subjective truth, which is something that is true to the individual, but not necessarily true for others - something such as "Brussels sprouts are nauseating to me.

I cannot demonstrate that experience, even if I eat Brussels sprouts in front of others and begin retching. Nobody but me knows if I am experiencing nausea or faking it.
 

Jayhawker Soule

-- untitled --
Premium Member
There is a serious logical problem with theistic objective morality. Suppose one states that "God is good." There are only two possibilities implied by this statement. Either the person stating that "God is good" is appealing to "good" as a characteristic outside of God, and thus, the person is effectively asserting that a higher standard of morality exists outside of God, and is judging God by that standard. Thus, God is not the arbiter of morals, rather, his actions are being evaluated as being moral based on a moral standard outside of him. If, on the other hand (and this is the only other possibility), the person stating "God is good" means that "moral goodness" is defined by God's actions, then God is an entirely amoral being. Since "Good" is defined by his actions, then by definition, everything he does must be good, and, therefore, he can do anything, and it will always be good, thus he has no choice between right and wrong, and, hence, he is amoral. In either of the two cases, we have a serious logical problem for theists who state that morality comes from God.
Yep.

(see, e.g., Euthyphro dilemma)
 

BilliardsBall

Veteran Member
There is a serious logical problem with theistic objective morality. Suppose one states that "God is good." There are only two possibilities implied by this statement. Either the person stating that "God is good" is appealing to "good" as a characteristic outside of God, and thus, the person is effectively asserting that a higher standard of morality exists outside of God, and is judging God by that standard. Thus, God is not the arbiter of morals, rather, his actions are being evaluated as being moral based on a moral standard outside of him. If, on the other hand (and this is the only other possibility), the person stating "God is good" means that "moral goodness" is defined by God's actions, then God is an entirely amoral being. Since "Good" is defined by his actions, then by definition, everything he does must be good, and, therefore, he can do anything, and it will always be good, thus he has no choice between right and wrong, and, hence, he is amoral. In either of the two cases, we have a serious logical problem for theists who state that morality comes from God.

The problematic logic belongs to the skeptics. Are you good? Does your goodness "exist as a characteristic outside of you" or is it intrinsic to your nature?
 

A Vestigial Mote

Well-Known Member
First read this criticism you made encompassing, basically, the entire OP (paying particular attention to the parts of your assertion in red):
Why? You seem to going from one concept to another here: from "good" to "morals" to "moral goodness," none of which, as you appear to regard them, are the same.

Now read this, a direct quote from yourself in response to one part of the OP (pay specific attention to the parts in blue):
What if god defines "good," and a person looking at that definition sees that it applies to god and says "God is good"? Would not god's own conception of good be a characteristic inside of him? Thus, God would be the arbiter of morals,

"Good... God is good... good... thus, morals." Interesting.
 
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Thief

Rogue Theologian
hmmmmm.......

if I kill someone trying to harm you....
you might say that is a good thing

if the killing causes me grief....and God puts me out of my misery....
is that a good thing?
 

MonkeyFire

Well-Known Member
hmmmmm.......

if I kill someone trying to harm you....
you might say that is a good thing

if the killing causes me grief....and God puts me out of my misery....
is that a good thing?

Are you saying non-violence is amoral? Cause its a good thing.
 

Ponder This

Well-Known Member
Not if the words bear their ordinary meanings, no. Tell me how morality can be objective.

And, for the third time, please give me an example of a moral rule with objective existence.

Or, as I suspect, aren't there any?

If a scientist found morality in the laboratory, I think it might just constitute a miracle.

That said, I sure do hope that scientists/engineers have some scruples while they fiddle with the strings of reality...

As to:
how could a moral rule exist independently of the brain that holds the concept?

It would seem strange to ask for an objective thought in the absence of thinking beings. To be clear, you aren't asking for objective evidence of brain cells in the absence of brains, are you? To wit things 'based on personal feelings or opinions' are 'subjective', but the 'existence of personal feelings and opinions' is 'objective' (otherwise upon what basis would we be able to definitively say something was 'subjective'), so even if thinking beings are a prerequisite for morality, it does not mean that it necessarily follows that morality is subjective.

Perhaps this idea of 'morality' is like the idea of the 'straight line'. There is no such thing as a straight line, but the concept of a straight line is undeniably useful and 'not influenced by personal feelings or opinions in considering and representing facts'. Ergo, the straight line is objective (as opposed to subjective) despite the evidence suggesting that straight lines do not exist.
 
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