• Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:
    • Reply to discussions and create your own threads.
    • Our modern chat room. No add-ons or extensions required, just login and start chatting!
    • Access to private conversations with other members.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!

Why was a “virgin birth” necessary?

Jordan St. Francis

Well-Known Member
It was either Tolkien or C.S Lewis who said that Christ is myth-become-history. The idea is that in him what the myths really anticipate and long for become true, and, in fact, more than fulfilled because God speaks the language of human longing. It's an interesting perspective.

I can understand how even many Christians see the birth as symbolic.
 

S-word

Well-Known Member
Quote: Kodanshi
No, the word used (‘almah’) actually means ‘young woman’ and was misinterpreted as ‘virgin’, hence why redactors had to associate Jesus with a virgin birth to ‘fulfil’ the ‘prophecy’.

Quote...Jordan St Francis... Yes, it was translated parthenos by those who produced the Septuagint. We might say it was an inspired error.

Wherever Isaiah refers to a virgin or virgins in the Old Testament, he uses the specific Hebrew term for virgin which is ‘Bethulah,’ or in the case of ‘Virgins, ‘Bethulum.’ Yes I know that it is said that the word ‘Almah,’ is used in the verse where Abraham’s servant sees the young woman coming to the well, who was ‘Rachel the Virgin,’ but the servant did not know at that time who she was nor her sexual status. After that first meeting, the Hebrew ‘Bethulah’ is used in any reference to Rachel before Isaac took her into his tent and consummated their union. The more modern bibles rightfully translate the Hebrew ‘Almah,’ as ‘young woman, or as in Young’s Analytical Concordance to the Bible, (Concealment: unmarried female).

As said previously, Isaiah used the Hebrew word ‘Almah,’ in reference to the conception of the child Jesus in the womb of Mary, which word means (Concealment: unmarried female) and can in no way be translated to mean a ‘virgin:’ erroneously interpreted, Yes, correctly translated, No.

In transcribing the words of the prophet Isaiah, that an “unmarried female would conceive and bear a child,” into Greek, which unlike the Hebrew language, does not have a specific term for ‘virgin,’ the authors of the Septuagint and Matthew were forced to use the Greek word ‘Parthenos,’ which carries a basic meaning of ‘girl,’ and denotes ‘virgin’ only by implication. ‘Parthenos,’ was often used in reference to non-virgins who had never been married. Homer uses it, and Homer was the standard textbook for learning Greek all throughout antiquity, so any writer of Greek, including Matthew, who transcribed Isaiah’s words, (An unmarried woman would conceive etc) to the best of his ability, would have been well aware of this words versatile and indefinite meaning.

The first time that “Virgin’ appears in any translation of the Bible, in reference to the mother of Jesus is when it was translated to Latin.

The 5th century Latin Bible ‘The Vulgate,’ was due mainly to the effort of Jerome who was commissioned to make a revision of the books that had already been translated to Latin by in most cases, persons unknown, and with those books translated by Jerome himself, which revision was completed in 405 A.D. became the official bible of the universal church that had been unified by its unorthodox champion, ‘King Constantine,’ who had his father Constantius deified and was accorded the same honour himself after his death.

Docetism, the concept that Jesus existed as a spirit rather than a human being, which had become prevalent in the evolving Christian movement and was the teaching of the anti-christ as warned by John, in 1st John 4: 1-3, and 2nd John verses 7 to 11; by the second century had theoretically been stamped out in Alexandria.

Nevertheless they still held to the view that Jesus had to have been too much of a God to have had the normal needs of we mere human beings, such as eating, drinking and excretion and in the second century A.D., Clement the bishop of Alexandria wrote this, “It would be ridiculous to imagine that the body of the Redeemer, in order to exist, had the usual needs of man. He only took food and ate it in order that we should not teach about him in a Docetic fashion.”

Like most of those who are deceived by the teachings of the anti-christ which refuses to acknowledge that Jesus came as a human being, he ignored the truth of scripture that Jesus must have been suffering the extreme pangs of hunger when Satan tried to tempt him into turning stones into bread. Or otherwise, He saw Satan as some sort of an idiot.

It was around Alexandria of Upper Egypt where the writings of the many Gnostic groups who believed they were in possession of some secret knowledge, were found. But those writings, among which are ‘an Apocalypse of Peter, an ‘Apocalypse of Paul,’ ‘a Secret Book of James,’ and ‘a Letter of Peter to Philip,’ although claiming apostolic authority, were obviously apocryphal and have been judged by most scholars as having been written in the 4th century A.D.


And it was in the 4th century, that King Constantine, sick to the gut of the abuse that was being flung at each other by the many different evolving groups of Christianity, Constantine himself, in 325 A.D., decided to call together, all the Christian leaders of the different evolving bodies of belief to the first ever ‘World Council of Churches: at the town of Nicaea in what today is Turkey, and there under the dominating presence and the unspoken threats of King Constantine, the Universal church was born.


But you are correct in a way, for John warned that the prophesied teaching of the anti-christ, which refuses to acknowledge that Jesus came as a human being, was already rearing its ugly head even in his day. For it was the will of God, that the teaching of a Goddess whose child was born from the God of the previous world should remain in the earth until the reality of such teachings could be revealed.

That is, that the body of mankind which is the goats who were divided from the sheep at the end of the previous world, are the spirits of the old world which had been cast back into the refining fires of this world, and that, He who was redeemed from the old world is the Lord and half brother to his virgin bride, where from within the body of his bride who is the androgynous body of mankind, he is forming the Body of the Son of Man, the new creation in the invisible mind that is God, which eternal evolving mind (Only a mind that dies can cease to evolve) is made manifest as the eternal and ever evolving cosmos, through the physical senses of our bodies.

And just as God fulfilled his purpose through Judas, see acts 2: 23; ‘According to his own plan God had already decided that Jesus would be handed over etc.” And through Hitler who he allowed to fulfil the prophesies that he gave to the Jews through Ezekiel, so too he used the famous prostitute to fulfil his plan.

But it matters not how righteous we become in the late evening of our life, nor how repentant we are of our previous sins nor how many tears we shed in the passion of our despair, we must all pay the blood price for the sins of our past, and the sins of our mothers past are many and have now been called to mind by God, who will put it into the minds of the kings of the earth to eat her flesh and to burn her with fire, even as said by Enoch, the only exception of all mankind to have been redeemed from the previouse world and carried to the ends of time where he witnessed all things that would ever occure in this world, "In the sixth period of one thousand years, at its close, the house of dominion will be burned with fire and a Man shall ascend."

It is for this reason in Revelations 18: 4-8, that god calls out to his elect and chosen ones who are the required number of Jews and gentiles who will take the thrones that have been prepared for them and will rule with Christ, "The Great Sabbath," "The DAY of the Lord," the seventh period of one thousand years from the day in which Adam ate of the forbidden fruit and died in that day at the age of 930.

Come out of her my people, do not share in her sin
You must not share her punishment, for her Judgment day has come
Her sins are piled to heaven and god recalls her evil ways
She says I am no widow and I’ll never see the grave
Because of that, in just one day disease will strike her down
And plagues and famine she'll receive till finally--- she's burned
Pay her back twofold for all that she has done
Fill her cup as she filled yours, but make it twice as strong
For all the glory she has claimed and all her luxury
Must be repaid this very day, with pain and misery.
 
Last edited:

Jordan St. Francis

Well-Known Member
Listen, it's all solved if one considers the Septuagint to be the inspired translation. That is, that the Spirit foreknew it would be the Scripture of the Christians.
 

LuisDantas

Aura of atheification
Premium Member
So you propose that the Septuagint is more accurate regarding the birth of the Messiah because it changed the original meaning of the word?

That is quite a leap of faith, don't you think?
 

tomspug

Absorbant
Theoretically speaking, why was a “virgin birth” necessary for the supposed Jesus?
He could have been a natural child of Joseph and Mary and still done the same things as outlined in the gospels, there is simply no reason a virgin birth was necessary.
The importance of Jesus was defined entirely by whether or not he was God incarnate. To say that a natural child would have been the same is to not understand the actual value of Jesus's teachings, or even their very nature.
 
No, the word used (‘almah’) actually means ‘young woman’ and was misinterpreted as ‘virgin’, hence why redactors had to associate Jesus with a virgin birth to ‘fulfil’ the ‘prophecy’.

Later, it made sense to others because of Adam & Eve: their sin causes everyone to be born into Original Sin because they are the products of sex. Accordingly, for a pure and sinless birth Jesus needed to come to this earth without his parents having sex.

What? No. Matthew 1:18-25 clearly says that Christ had no father, it doesn't even use the word "virgin" to be confused by it. It clearly says that "she was found with child of the Holy Spirit".

Luke 1:34 Then Mary said to the angel, "how can this be, since I do not know a man?"
35And the angel answered and said to her, "The Holy spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Highest will overshadow you; therefore, also, that Holy One who is to be born will be called the Son of God..."
 
Last edited:
Isaiah 7:14 to where "almah" is referred...this shows the craftiness of the Jews in trying to deny Christ.

Modern Jewish "Hebrew" Bibles use the word with only one of its definitions "young maiden" of marrigable age.

But the Hebrew Bible in Greek from 2nd Century BC uses a word specifically meaning Virgin. The Jews clearly were expecting that the Son of God would be born to a Virgin, not just an unmarried woman.

The Hebrew word used, Almah, can mean virgin or young woman...just as the English language can use Virgin to describe any young girl or "damsel". So it's really a case of ambiguity in regards to the language.

When translated however in the second century BC...it suggests the Hebrews thought of it as "virgin". Whether they did or did not is moot, the Old Testament said that Jesus Christ would be born of a Virgin whether that word meant a young woman or a virgin well it happened to be proved to mean the latter. Since the word used could mean that, it is a moot issue and this thread is just babble.
 

Dominic

New Member
Explain to me how a virgin got pregnant then, becuase it seems pretty impossible to me. Especially as back in those days they had no needles, IVF ETC
That's easy. The ghost of God (the real one . . . you know . . . the creator of the universe) impregnated the virgin girl. Since the impregnation was via ghostly mechanism, she felt nothing . . . therefore . . . she was none the wiser . . . until of course she was told so in a dream . . . but I digress. Anyways, this impregnation by the ghost of God allowed her (still a virgin, by the way . . . the ghost prolly did not breach the hyman, you see?) to give birth to son of God who was really God himself . . . got it?! Not really a big mystery now afterall, is it?!
 

ayani

member
well, from a Christian perspective, Jesus had to be born of a virgin for a couple of reasons.

He was born of God's Spirit as opposed to a man's seed, and hence shares in God's divine nature, and power, and authority. He has a unique relationship to God, and through His Sonship and divine nature is able to reconcile us to God, via Himself.

His being born of God's Spirit means that He does not share in original sin. meaning, He does not need to wonder about, question, seek, or study the things of God. He knows them innately, and He knows God personally, as there is none of that human confusion about God's person and character that cloud our own hearts, and make truth so subjective and elusive. meaning also that He shares in God's eternal nature. He died, yet death could not keep Him down, or dead.

in Christian belief He is without sin, and without sin nature, and His perfection makes Him the perfect and flawless sacrifice for our sins, to remove that veil or barrier between us, and the God who made us and loves us.

how, exactly does this work? frankly, i'm not sure. i just know that it does, and i'm very thankful for and blessed because of that. yay!

so Jesus' death reconciles us to God, and makes us right with Him. and because Jesus lives, He is able to save us, help us, guide us, and shepherd us through life.

so all of these things are innately tied into the virgin birth, and the origin of Jesus' conception.
http://www.gotquestions.org/virgin-or-young-woman.html
 
Last edited:

S-word

Well-Known Member
Isaiah 7:14 to where "almah" is referred...this shows the craftiness of the Jews in trying to deny Christ.

Modern Jewish "Hebrew" Bibles use the word with only one of its definitions "young maiden" of marrigable age.

But the Hebrew Bible in Greek from 2nd Century BC uses a word specifically meaning Virgin. The Jews clearly were expecting that the Son of God would be born to a Virgin, not just an unmarried woman.

The Hebrew word used, Almah, can mean virgin or young woman...just as the English language can use Virgin to describe any young girl or "damsel". So it's really a case of ambiguity in regards to the language.

When translated however in the second century BC...it suggests the Hebrews thought of it as "virgin". Whether they did or did not is moot, the Old Testament said that Jesus Christ would be born of a Virgin whether that word meant a young woman or a virgin well it happened to be proved to mean the latter. Since the word used could mean that, it is a moot issue and this thread is just babble.


In transcribing the words of the prophet Isaiah, that an “unmarried female would conceive and bear a child,” into Greek, which unlike the Hebrew language, does not have a specific term for ‘virgin,’ the authors of the Septuagint and Matthew were forced to use the Greek word ‘Parthenos,’ which carries a basic meaning of ‘girl,’ and denotes ‘virgin’ only by implication. ‘Parthenos,’ was often used in reference to non-virgins who had never been married. Homer uses it, and Homer was the standard textbook for learning Greek all throughout antiquity, so any writer of Greek, including Matthew, who transcribed Isaiah’s words, (An unmarried woman would conceive etc) to the best of his ability, would have been forced to use the Greek 'parthentos,' being well aware of this words versatile and indefinite meaning.
 

Comicaze247

See the previous line
It also suggests the means by which he made her pregnant (insemination (as the dictionary demonstrates)). I reject that.
Ok, again focusing on something that's not the point. Seems to be a trend with you.

Yet again, the point is that "God" got someone else's wife pregnant (adultery), on top of the fact that it's his own daughter (incest). Just a little sick, isn't it?
 

S-word

Well-Known Member
That's easy. The ghost of God (the real one . . . you know . . . the creator of the universe) impregnated the virgin girl. Since the impregnation was via ghostly mechanism, she felt nothing . . . therefore . . . she was none the wiser . . . until of course she was told so in a dream . . . but I digress. Anyways, this impregnation by the ghost of God allowed her (still a virgin, by the way . . . the ghost prolly did not breach the hyman, you see?) to give birth to son of God who was really God himself . . . got it?! Not really a big mystery now afterall, is it?!

You're getting your stories mixed up mate, it was Joseph to whom it was revealed in a dream, the fact that the woman to whom he was betrothed, (Not Married) was pregnant. It weren't Mary, she didn't need no one to tell her that she was pregnant, and nor by whom.

Even the pre-flood women who bore giant children to the observers (Watchers) "The Sons Of God" who had abandoned their own original habitat, or the angels who were chained in darkness untill 70 generations had passed: those children weren't born from virgins either. For the Gods (Spirit Beings) would possess the bodies of the men while they were with their women and from there they were able to pass on their issue, but the physical bodies of those children were not conceived without male semen having been introduced into the uterus of the women.

By the way, Jesus is seventy generations from Enoch, see Luke which is the only record of the geneology of Jesus, the record in Matthew being that of his step father, Joseph of the tribe of Judah.
 
Last edited:

LuisDantas

Aura of atheification
Premium Member
The importance of Jesus was defined entirely by whether or not he was God incarnate. To say that a natural child would have been the same is to not understand the actual value of Jesus's teachings, or even their very nature.

Then it is probably a good thing that I am not a Christian. Isn't it a bit too extreme to attribute the entire significance of Jesus to his supposed divine nature?

Even many early Christians disagree with that.

Adoptionism - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

One would expect the Christian teachings to have some concrete value even if turns out the Jesus did not exist or was a mortal man after all.
 

raybo

courier...
s-word,

You are beginning to impress me... perhaps even a lot! lol

I have not "heard" from any other.. the insights you share so readily. This does pose a bigger intrigue to me... the fact you have explored as much would have me believe you have been inspired to do so. Yet, there remains something still in the way... you have my attention!

On topic: And Mary was in the temple of the Lord as if she were a dove that dwelt there, and she received food from the hand of an angel. And when she was twelve years old there was held a council of the priests, saying: Behold, Mary has reached the age of twelve years in the temple of the Lord. What then shall we do with her, test perchance she defile the sanctuary of the Lord? And they said to the high priest: Thou standest by the altar of the Lord; go in, and pray concerning her; and whatever the Lord shall manifest unto thee, that also will we do.

s-word, All,

The significance of these writings in the infancy gospel cannot be overstated regarding the "inspired" consistency that was shared. Further, one who is "also" inspired could not deny the authenticity of what was being presented. The significance, whereby a house cannot stand divided, must not be ignored while addressing these writings and one's like them. In every way the observances brought forward regarding Mary and the conception holds to an order that cannot be denied... holding to holy observances.

Outside of these writings, one who is inspired should be able to accept, and to do so with out the defenses that are fused with untruths and the like. Hence, such things are not for everyone looking in.

S-word... all,

Please continue!
 

Free4all

It's all about the blood
Just a quick question... How many chromosomes do you suspect Jesus had? If Jesus had 46 chromosomes, His father would have been the same species as He was. Not "human" because humans are mortal, but humanlike. Immortal, perfect.

I think 24 (23 from Mary & 1 from God) - Although this is just my personal opinion, I have no bible verses to back this up. If he is the Son of God, it seems logical (to me) that without a male donor he would be missing the 23 that would have come from him.
So my conclusion to this would be if somebody could prove that he actually has or had 46 chromosomes than he had a human father and is NOT the Son of God.
 

idea

Question Everything
Theoretically speaking, why was a “virgin birth” necessary for the supposed Jesus?
He could have been a natural child of Joseph and Mary and still done the same things as outlined in the gospels, there is simply no reason a virgin birth was necessary.

The current way of begetting children is the cursed way...
16 Unto the woman he said, I will greatly multiply thy sorrow and thy conception; in sorrow thou shalt bring forth children; and thy desire shall be to thy husband, and he shall rule over thee.
(Old Testament | Genesis 3:16)

there is another way to beget children.

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Jesus is the son of Heavenly Father, sex would have been an inappropriate way to inpregnate her. IMO.


 

idea

Question Everything
I think 24 (23 from Mary & 1 from God) - Although this is just my personal opinion, I have no bible verses to back this up. If he is the Son of God, it seems logical (to me) that without a male donor he would be missing the 23 that would have come from him.
So my conclusion to this would be if somebody could prove that he actually has or had 46 chromosomes than he had a human father and is NOT the Son of God.

Heavenly Father is almost human - He is a flesh and bone being with arms/legs/fingers/face/mouth/etc...

God, Body of—Corporeal Nature (see also Man, A Spirit Child of Heavenly Father; Man, Physical Creation of)
Gen. 1:27 (Moses 2:27) God created man in his own image
Gen. 5:1 God created man, in the likeness of God made he him
Gen. 9:6 in the image of God made he man
Gen. 18:33 Lord went his way, as soon as he had left communing
Gen. 32:30 I have seen God face to face
Ex. 24:10 they saw the God of Israel, there was under his feet
Ex. 31:18 (Deut. 9:10) written with the finger of God
Ex. 33:11 Lord spake unto Moses face to face
Ex. 33:23 thou shalt see my back parts: but my face shall not be seen
Num. 12:8 With him will I speak mouth to mouth
Matt. 3:17 a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son
Matt. 4:4 every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God
Matt. 17:5 a voice out of the cloud
Luke 24:39 for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have
John 14:9 he that hath seen me hath seen the Father
Acts 7:56 the Son of man standing on the right hand of God
Rom. 8:29 predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son
2 Cor. 4:4 Christ, who is the image of God
Philip. 2:6 who, being in the form of God
Philip. 3:21 our vile body ... fashioned like unto his glorious body
Col. 1:15 Who is the image of the invisible God
Heb. 1:3 the express image of his person
James 3:9 men which are made after the similitude of God
1 Jn. 3:2 when he shall appear, we shall be like him
Rev. 22:4 they shall see his face
(Topical Guide | GGod, Body of—Corporeal Nature:Entry)

God is the actual Father of Jesus.
 

Free4all

It's all about the blood
well, from a Christian perspective, Jesus had to be born of a virgin for a couple of reasons.

He was born of God's Spirit as opposed to a man's seed, and hence shares in God's divine nature, and power, and authority. He has a unique relationship to God, and through His Sonship and divine nature is able to reconcile us to God, via Himself.

His being born of God's Spirit means that He does not share in original sin. meaning, He does not need to wonder about, question, seek, or study the things of God. He knows them innately, and He knows God personally, as there is none of that human confusion about God's person and character that cloud our own hearts, and make truth so subjective and elusive. meaning also that He shares in God's eternal nature. He died, yet death could not keep Him down, or dead.

in Christian belief He is without sin, and without sin nature, and His perfection makes Him the perfect and flawless sacrifice for our sins, to remove that veil or barrier between us, and the God who made us and loves us.

how, exactly does this work? frankly, i'm not sure. i just know that it does, and i'm very thankful for and blessed because of that. yay!

so Jesus' death reconciles us to God, and makes us right with Him. and because Jesus lives, He is able to save us, help us, guide us, and shepherd us through life.

so all of these things are innately tied into the virgin birth, and the origin of Jesus' conception.

VERY well said - I'll second that motion.
 

Watchmen

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Ok, again focusing on something that's not the point. Seems to be a trend with you.

Yet again, the point is that "God" got someone else's wife pregnant (adultery), on top of the fact that it's his own daughter (incest). Just a little sick, isn't it?

It is the point - you kept rejecting it. Now that you've conceded will move on to your second point.

As to your second point, who are we to apply our man-made morals to God? If God is perfectly good then what he did is not sick. We might only think so because of our limited understanding. Also, since sex was not involved, but a miraculous act of creation was, the connotation you're trying to apply just doesn't exist.
 
Top