There's a difference between God's Spirit resting upon a prophet at the time of God's choosing, and the people of God collectively walking by his Spirit.
Please, let's not overlook the detail of sin. That's the point of our discussion.
You said: "The generations of Adam are all born in sin, separated from the Holy Spirit."
Then I brought verses to show that indeed the Holy Spirit rested on many after Adam and before Jesus. So, there's two choices: Either the Adam's sin did not affect those who received the Holy Spirit, or receiving the Holy Spirit has nothing to do with status as a sinner. Either way, your theology takes a hit.
This is another example of the assumptions made regading how to know if someone is with or without sin. It's
assumed that Adam's sin was never forgiven. It's
assumed that this sin transfers to all offspring. It's
assumed that the Holy Spirit ony rests on those without sin.
And based on this a person
assumes that someone receiving a spirit, working wonders must be sinless and therefore should be followed as an example of righteousness in *all* their ways.
Why would Jeremiah [31:33], and Ezekiel [36:25-27], indicate a future time when Israel would come to know God in Spirit and truth if lsrael already communed in this manner?
Jeremiah is talking about a future time when the laws will not need to be taught. Since the prophecy and wonders existed without this miracle, "knowing the LORD" in this way is irrelevent to seperation from the Holy Spirit.
Ezekiel 36? Ezekiel's prophecies speak to the general population. Several times in the book, it is admitted that there are righteous ones in Israel at this time.
Look at Ezekiel 14:12-23. Even if Noah, Daniel, and Job lived at this time, they themselves would be saved, but no more. Therefore, the prophecies about the House of Israel do NOT speak about every single individual Jewish person. There could be righteous people there, and the desctruction would happen anyway. A similar sentiment is in Ezekiel 21:1-5. Even if one is righteous they will be chopped down. To be clear, this is what the LORD wants them to be told. But the point is, a prophecy coming from Ezekiel might ignore who is righteous or not. When he speaks about The House of Israel in 36, there might be rightous ones there, but the prophecy is speaking to the majority.
Jesus said, 'Verily, l say unto you, Among them that are born of women there hath not risen a greater than John the Baptist: notwithstanding he that is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he.'
Jesus also said: "Verily, verily, I say unto you,
He that believeth on me, the works that I do shall he do also; and greater works than these shall he do; because I go unto my Father."
So you can't really trust what Jesus says all the time. Believers can't curse fig trees. Believers can't raise the dead. And where are these "greater works" that a believer can do?
What applies to John the Baptist applies to all the Hebrew prophets.
Assumption. Not fact.
They were able to prophesy by the Spirit of God, but they did not know the Lord through the promise of a new heart and spirit.
Sure, but that proves my point. Prophecy and wonder workings do not require a new spirit and a new heart, and therefore is unrelated to whether or not sin has been eradicted in the flesh.
This was a future promise, made to Abraham, and fulfilled in the seed of Abraham and David.
The seed.
What if there's an evil seed? The seed of a beast? Just a few verses up in Jeremiah we read:
Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will sow the house of Israel and the house of Judah with the seed of man, and with the seed of beast.
Uh-oh. The seed from the House of Judah is a seed of a beast? Isn't Jesus from the House fo Judah?? I'm just pointing out how silly it is over emphasize the word seed, and make ito something that it isn't. The same goes for "son-of-man" who is also a worm and a "prince" who can't be trusted.
Assumptions, assumptions. Arguably this was Eve's flaw. She assumed she knew the rules correctly, precisely, but she didn't. Details matter. Assuming there's just one seed, assuming there's just one son-of-man, assuming miracles means sinless... not wise.
That seed begins with one man and takes the form of an eternal covenant.
Agreed. A good seed makes a good eternal covenant. A bad seed makes a bad eternal covenant.
The things said in Leviticus about an everlasting priesthood did not find fulfilment in the sons of Aaron, but in Christ! The body of Christ, collectively, are a priesthood!
Here are the words of
Hebrews 7:11-16.
Again, here's Paul going back before the law was given at Sinai, looking for a loophole. Trying to find a way to subvert the law which he says is "weak and useless" ( The KJV uses flowery language for this ) and rendered "weak" high priests.
Does he succeed? Nope. It fails with ... assumptions.
The required premise ( see Hebrews 7:3 and Hebrews 7:8 ) is that Malchi-Tzedek still lives. Paul says it must be so. Why? because his mother, father, and life span are not known. What a ridiculous claim.
The next part of the scheme requries that Abraham ( Abram at that time ) gives a tithe to Malchi-Tzedek. That's an assumption and it does really fit the text.
Genesis 14:18-20
And Malchizedek the king of Salem brought out bread and wine, and he was a priest to the Most High God. And he blessed him, and he said, "Blessed be Abram to the Most High God, Who possesses heaven and earth. And blessed be the Most High God, Who has delivered your adversaries into your hand," and he gave him a tithe from all.
OR
And Malchizedek the king of Salem brought out bread and wine, and he was a priest to the Most High God. And he blessed him, and he said, "Blessed be Abram to the Most High God, Who possesses heaven and earth. And blessed be the Most High God, Who has delivered your adversaries into your hand," and he gave him a tithe from all.
Which makes more sense? Did Malchi-tzedek give to Abrham, or did Abraham give to Malchi-tzedek.
It makes more sense that Malchi-tzedek gave to Abram because of the "ands".
- And Malchi-tzedek brought
- And Malchi-tzedek blessed
- And Malchi-tzedek said
- And Malchi-tzedek gave
And Malchizedek the king of Salem
brought out bread and wine, and he was a priest to the Most High God.
And he
blessed him,
and he
said, "Blessed be Abram to the Most High God, Who possesses heaven and earth. And blessed be the Most High God, Who has delivered your adversaries into your hand,"
and he
gave him a tithe from all.
It's all conected with "ands" means that Malchi-tzedek gave to Abram, so Paul's assumption is wrong.
Next assumption is Hebrews 7:7. The greater always blesses the lesser. He say's that's indisputable. That's not true.
1 Kings 8:65-66
65 And at that time Solomon held a feast, and all Israel with him, a great congregation, from the entering in of Hamath unto the river of Egypt, before the LORD our God, seven days and seven days,
even fourteen days.
66 On the eighth day he sent
the people away: and
they blessed the king, and went unto their tents joyful and glad of heart for all the goodness that the LORD had done for David his servant, and for Israel his people.
So that's false.
Then using these assumptions, Paul proposes that the levites, all of them in perpetuity, deferred to Malchi-tzedek retroactivley, before the law was given, before they were born, IF , big if, Abraham gave a tithe to Malchi-tzedek IF, big if, Malchi-tzedek is immortal.
The whole premise is garbage. Without Abraham giving the tithe to Malchi-tzedek; the priesthood was not fulfilled by anyone other than the Levites themselves. And that ignores the nonsense about Malchi-tzedek still being alive.
Now we get to the verses you brought.
Paul asks a question, and again, the argument he makes fails based on assumption.
"If the levites were perfect why was another priest needed of the order of Malchi-tzedek?" The assumption ( which doesn't match the story ) is that this priest is coming after the levites not before the levites. But the order of Malchi-tzedek predated the levites.
If Malchi-tzedek tithing Abraham initiated Abraham into the Malch-tzedek priesthood, ( which is the reasoning Paul made earlier ), then the argument fails. The order of Malchi-tzedek did not fulfill God's purpose evidentally because the Levits were needed later.
Now, what's happening in Psalm 110? King David is seeking inspiration from the story of Abraham conquering the four kings which ended with Abraham being symbolically added to the Malchi-tzedek priesthood which is totally different than the eternal priesthood established later by the LORD.
And the argument fails again in its conclusion with an assumption. Verse 12 says "if the priesthood changes the law must change". That assumes there is only 1 order, 1 religion, 1 kind of priest.
So thats it. There is no loophole for Jesus to claim the high priesthood through the so-called immortal Malchi-tzedek. The whole thing is a sham.