God is Spirit, and has no actual face. The face, countenance, or image of God, is the human form in which God dwelt. [John 1:14]
'Listen and learn'! John 1:18.'No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.'
You claim to...
The 'echad' is the oneness of God, and does not include flesh, of which Jesus was made. It is, therefore, wrong to say that Jesus is part of the 'echad'.
The trinity, 'Father-Son-Holy Spirit', or 'Father-Word-Holy Spirit', does not take into account the flesh. Mary gave birth to Jesus, a human...
Of course Jesus prepared a body for his Father, because he sacrificed himself in obedience to his Father's will!
If believing that Jesus Christ is both fully human and fully God is ignorance, then l'm happy to remain ignorant! The alternative is to either believe Jesus Christ is fully God but...
God is able to bring about the conception of Mary's ovum without the need to create human sperm! God is the Creator.
You seem impervious to the consequences of your theology. By saying that Mary was not biologically involved in Jesus' conception, you are making Jesus out to be an alien being...
You're claiming that Mary was a surrogate mother, and this is wrong.
In chapter 2 of Matthew, Mary is referred to as 'his mother' on five separate occasions. Had Mary been a surrogate mother to Jesus, she would not have been referred to as 'his mother' without the addition of 'as was supposed'...
And here we have the verse that proves you to be the one in error!
Romans 1:3. 'Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh;'
So, Jesus was flesh born of flesh, and the 'seed of David according to the flesh'. This means that he had to...
No one is suggesting that God needs to create sperm to bring about the conception in Mary. The Holy Spirit brings about the conception in Mary by a miracle. This means that the ovum in Mary is given the life of God. This is what is meant by the words 'that which is conceived in her is of the...
Yes, let's talk in layman's language. It was good enough for Jesus, and should be good enough for us.
John 1:14. 'And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.'
John 3:6. 'That which is born...
More of your arrogant talk! 'let 101G put it in layman's terms for you'!
If Jesus inherited nothing from Mary, then he was not a human being of flesh and blood. The orthodox Christian position is that Jesus was fully man and fully God. Clearly, you disagree!
When do you think God came to dwell...
The question is whether or not Jesus inherits a human blood line through Mary, and nothing you have said, or quoted, suggests that Mary's ovum was not used.
There is no need for providing two legal genealogies. The legal and royal genealogy is found in Matthew.
You have a very arrogant manner, and it does not speak to me of truth!
You claim that Jesus was not a human in the blood line of Adam. In this case, the genealogy of Jesus in Luke has no place in the New Testament!
It has been a central belief of Jews for millennia that the Messiah would be...
Luke 3 is open ended, and the translators added their interpretation. Take away the translators interpretation 'son of' in Luke 3:23, and write 'son in law of' instead! Then you have a paternal line through Mary's father, Heli.
It's quite clear from Matthew's Gospel that Joseph's father was...
The case you are making is not at all clear.
Either Jesus had a human blood line, or he is not of any human extraction. The two genealogies are of Joseph (Matthew's Gospel) and Mary (Luke's Gospel). These two genealogies must be brought together to combine the royal legitimacy of Joseph's line...
This is not about trusting the Greeks! It's about the wording of the NT, which happens to be written in Greek (by divine will).
Jesus was not the son of Joseph by blood line, but he was the son of Mary by blood line. This is what the genealogies tell us!
No, you're applying the word 'son' to Joseph, and not to Heli! Joseph was not the son of Heli, he was the son in law of Heli. Mary was Heli's daughter.
The argument here is not about whether Jesus was the son of Joseph. We know that Jesus was not the son of Joseph. He was the son of God. But...
As explained to 2ndpillar, Luke 3:23 does not say 'son of' in the Greek. If you use a KJV you will see these words are written in italic, meaning that they do not exist in the original.
Heli was the father of Mary, and the father in law to Joseph. Joseph's father was Jacob [see Matthew's...
Luke's genealogy is not the genealogy of Joseph. If you check the Greek text, you will see that it does not say 'son of' in the Greek [Luke 3:23].
The whole genealogy consists of males, and runs to Mary's father, Heli. Heli is Joseph's father in law.
There is, therefore, an unbroken blood line...
It's true that God does not have a birth line, but His 'Christ' does! In other words, Jesus does have a birth line, and it can be traced to David, through Nathan [Luke 3:31].
Jesus Christ is the one mediator, not just between the Old Testament and the New, but between God and men.
1Timothy...
The argument is pretty clear. If God had no need of a biological parent, he would have dropped a baby onto Mary's lap! Instead, God chose to overshadow Mary at the time of conception. This means that Mary's ovum was fertilized by the power of the Holy Spirit. Mary then underwent a nine month...