Redemptionsong
Well-Known Member
Luke 3 is open ended, and the translators added their interpretation. Take away the translators interpretation 'son of' in Luke 3:23, and write 'son in law of' instead! Then you have a paternal line through Mary's father, Heli.Yeah, but that is not what Luke 3 says. That is your interpretation, and going by past experience, that is probably not on solid ground. As for Matthew writing in Greek, the "disciples" were told to preach the "kingdom of heaven" to the "lost sheep of Israel" (Mt 10:6-7). In the state of Judea, the common people spoke Aramaic, and therefore you might want to consult the Aramaic/Per****ta bible. Building your house on sand (Mt 7:24-27) is not the best route to take. You need two witnesses to confirm any matter, and you have an off shute of one, based on your supposedly leaning on traditions of men with Greek ties, memorialized in a bible written to glorify an English king, written in the 17th Century. I don't know, it sounds kind of iffy. Your version does not mention this "Joseph" as being the father-in-law of the "Joseph", nor did it mention Mary. You are simply scrambling on thin ice. I assume that most of your notions are also based on similar ill-conceived premises based on apparently secret gnostic information. Not to say that a blood line did not run through Mary, as stated by your twisted take from some unknown author with ties to the false prophet Paul, but you have not proven your case.
Pe****ta bible Luke 3:23 But Yeshua was about thirty years old, and he was considered the son of Yoseph, son of Heli,
It's quite clear from Matthew's Gospel that Joseph's father was Jacob, not Heli.