Desert Snake
Veteran Member
Yes your highness.
logical fallacy.
actually, 'man of fish', could be Jesus? hmm
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Yes your highness.
Logical Fallacy
Faulty Generalization
Saying that all people who love crying "fallacy" never do so accurately.
One last chance to make a post without logical fallacies.
Logical Fallacy
Strawman Argument
Me saying that I do not believe that all humans are rational does not mean that I think all humans are irrational.
1) I'm an ex-Muslim who read a lot about Islam with consideration for different perspectives during my period of doubt because I was afraid I would go to Hell if I lost my belief, and that's on top of having lived my whole life in Muslim-majority countries. So no, I'm not lying. You can ask questions instead of assuming dishonesty on the part of those who disagree with you.
Like I said, you can refer to any of the older tafseers like Ibn Katheer's to know more details about this stuff. It's not hard because the tafseers are available online.
Is this an answer?
"Abu Lahab" = "Man of the Flame," literally. I already posted this and explained the reason this epithet was given to Abu Lahab much earlier on in this thread.
1) I'm an ex-Muslim who read a lot about Islam with consideration for different perspectives during my period of doubt because I was afraid I would go to Hell if I lost my belief, and that's on top of having lived my whole life in Muslim-majority countries. So no, I'm not lying. You can ask questions instead of assuming dishonesty on the part of those who disagree with you.
Like I said, you can refer to any of the older tafseers like Ibn Katheer's to know more details about this stuff. It's not hard because the tafseers are available online.
Is this an answer?
"Abu Lahab" = "Man of the Flame," literally. I already posted this and explained the reason this epithet was given to Abu Lahab much earlier on in this thread.
"Noon" is one of the words in Arabic that mean "whale," and in Arabic, "za" indicates possessiveness. So "zal noon" is "man of the fish."
Are you fluent in Arabic? This is not a rhetorical question; I'm really wondering.
Jesus wept. You really are going for the rapid fire fallacy **** up record here.
You'd do well to stop thinking in pre-packaged cliches as it seriously messes with your ability to have a meaningful discussion.
I'll simplify:
1. Whether you acknowledge it or not. You (and everybody else) believe things you have no evidence for. You also disbelieve things despite there being significant evidence against them (i.e. your belief you can competently use generic fallacies in an accurate and insightful manner).
2. Every human is irrational to a significant degree. Some are more rational than others, but we really are not a rational animal [at least not in the Aristotelian sense]. There is a very strong scientific case for this (See Daniel Kahneman & Amos Tversky, Robert Trivers, Robert Kurzban, Daniel Gilbert etc.).
Ironically, only an irrational person can consider themselves rational while a rational person knows they are irrational.
Anyway, take it or leave it. I'm bored of fallacy bingo. But if you won't take my word for it, go and read about heuristics and biases, evolutionary psychology, the 'modular mind', etc.
logical fallacy.
actually, 'man of fish', could be Jesus? hmm
Well, if it said fish, it could be Simon. Or another fisherman in Galili.
I wouldn't say that muffasirs overall "have no idea"; it's just that some parts are more open to interpretation than others. There is a reason one has to study the sirah alongside tafsir, because it provides the context and groundwork for interpreting many parts of the Qur'an. Islam is one of the most organized religions in the world at the moment, and a big factor in that is that there is a majority scholarly consensus on most issues, or at least majority scholarly consensus that usually falls within the realm of the four major schools of Islam.
How do you reconcile this belief with the fact that there are written accounts of an actual person who had the epithet "Abu Lahab" who was also Muhammad's uncle?
Yes, that's why I believe that the sirah is a mix of history and fictional exaggerations.
I didnt assume dishonesty. I assumed ignorance.
You say that some documents written centuries after the prophet are historical evidence while you discredit the Quran which is the closest to his time by using the same historical evidence you claim through the same documents written centuries later. Dont you see you have made a mistake?
And I dont care about what majority any country has mate.
Yep. Tafseers are available online. But do you believe in Ibn Kathirs thafseer. Do you see it as infallible? Historically accurate. Just say it.
I meant youve lost the original question you had.
Good. Im glad. If you give me the reference I will read it with all due respect.
I have read all the bloody documents that pertains to this subject, all are so dubious, based on irrelevant, late and ambiguous narrations that I don't have any relationship to them.
Lol You believe that? Noon is a Whale? Bro we already read this.
You are right. Za does mean possess in conjunction with with other words. But, Noon is not whale....
If its whale, why does it not say "Man of Whale" instead of "Man of Fish"?
Qur'an 21:87 said:And remember Zun nun, When he departed in wrath: he imagined that we had no power over him! But he cried through the depths Of darkness, there is no god but Thou: glory to thee: I was indeed wrong!
Do you know where the whale story comes from?
It comes from from a stupid and dumb*** story from Ibn Kathirs interpretation or in the famous phrase "Tafsir" where it states that a big whale carried the seven earths on its body.
I am not even gonna begin with that story.
Are you seriously understanding the Quranic verses from this point of view? Its a bit absurd mate. (I typed bro but deleted it btw)
Peace.
I hope you learn how to use logic.
I'm not discrediting the Qur'an; I'm saying it can't byou ze interpreted accurately in isolation of its linguistic and historical context.
There's no such thing as "believing in" a tafseer, unless you idolize it, which I don't do. And no, it's not infallible, but it's based on scholarly knowledge and extensive study.
The original question I had was asking about what you meant to begin with. I still don't know what your purpose was for mentioning Al-Bukhari.
Sure, since you asked and you didn't answer my question about whether you are fluent in Arabic, here is a link on the subject:
http://fatwa.islamweb.net/fatwa/index.php?page=showfatwa&Option=FatwaId&Id=106774
Hopefully it'll be helpful to you... if you can read it, that is.
I'm not discrediting the Qur'an; I'm saying it can't be interpreted accurately in isolation of its linguistic and historical context.
There's no such thing as "believing in" a tafseer, unless you idolize it, which I don't do. And no, it's not infallible, but it's based on scholarly knowledge and extensive study.
The original question I had was asking about what you meant to begin with. I still don't know what your purpose was for mentioning Al-Bukhari.
Sure, since you asked and you didn't answer my question about whether you are fluent in Arabic, here is a link on the subject:
http://fatwa.islamweb.net/fatwa/index.php?page=showfatwa&Option=FatwaId&Id=106774
Hopefully it'll be helpful to you... if you can read it, that is.
Because Qur'anic translations aren't unanimous or always perfectly accurate. This is Yusuf Ali's translation (according to this website):
(Boldening mine.)
He transliterated it instead of translating it.
Ibn Katheer didn't make up that story, actually (another source for you to read, since you didn't answer the question and keep making claims about metaphors in Arabic): https://islamqa.info/ar/114861
I think it would be unwise at best to get all of one's knowledge about the Qur'an's meaning according to scholars form just one tafseer, which is why I never said that you should look stuff up in Ibn Katheer only. There are plenty of other tafseers out there in addition to that one.
@Debater Slayer @firedragon
How would you translate this الر كِتَابٌ أُحْكِمَتْ آيَاتُهُ ثُمَّ فُصِّلَتْ مِن لَّدُنْ حَكِيمٍ خَبِيرٍ ? (Quran 11:1)
This seems to have one of the widest range of translations I've seen for any verse.
Jesus is a 'fisher of men'. However, that is true.
Peace be on you.chapters 110 and 111 seem completely unrelated. according to your beliefs, why would you even need to explain what you're saying to someone if the verses are "perfect" and "explained in detail"?
the only verse in chapter 111 that mentions anyone other than abu lahab and his wife is in verse 2 where there is a translation which says "his children," but it's worded like this:
His wealth and his children (etc.) will not benefit him!
http://quran.com/111/2
يَا مَعْشَرَ الْجِنِّ وَالْإِنسِ إِنِ اسْتَطَعْتُمْ أن تَنفُذُوا مِنْ أقْطَارِ السَّمَاوَاتِ وَالْأرْضِ فَانفُذُوا لَآ تَنفُذُونَ إِلاّ بِسُلْطَانٍ
فَبِأيِّ آلَآء رَبِّكُمَا تُكَذِّبَانِ
one, yesterday i discovered that in the qur`an, chapter 11 verse 1 states that the verses are perfected and explained in detail, but all of chapter 111 is clearly about muhammad wanting revenge on his uncle and her wife. the entire message of the qur`an would be benefited without that chapter. how are those perfected verses?
why would we need to describe the verses of the qur`an with statements that aren't in the qur`an? it's not fair for future readers. what if recorded knowledge about historic events didn't last long enough to make it to everyone who reads the qur`an? that's not perfection. also, why are the famous mysterious letters (i.e. alif lam ra) added into the qur`an with no explanation for them? and if they weren't in the actual qur`an, then a huge part of the world has been misguided by this. this contradicts chapter 11 verse 1When reading certain verses or chapters it's important to understand when it was revealed and in what context it was revealed. I've copied and pasted the tafsir ( exegesis) for those who are interested.
Not no idea in general, but no idea on certain passages of the Quran. Tabari will sometimes cite 10+ incompatible explanations of the same passage.
IMO, the problem about studying the Sirah to understand the Quran is that large parts of the Sirah were constructed by 9th C Iraqi jurists to make theological points about their own society.
Much scholarly consensus appeared later, for example on the year of the Prophet's birth.
He is generally considered to be born in the 'year of the elephant' (the elephant story itself lacks historicity), however according to various sources he was born 15 years before that, or 3 or 10 or 15 or 20 or 23 or 30 or 40 or 50 or 70 years later. If something as straightforward as this produces such a range of opinions, it seems very strange that much of the rest of his life is described in minute detail.
More the latter imo. The sirah gets far more detailed the later it was written, and frequently doesn't chime with the limited historical record we have.