I understand what you mean. I just want to clarify that I don't presume that the Bible is true. I'm just pointing out that this is ''what (or something that) is written in it.'' And trying to clarify what is the meaning of: Christ suffered for your (our) sins. Hypothetically, if I accept the fact that Jesus Christ, Son of God, suffered for our sins - it still doesn't make sense that he would have suffered for the Sins that weren't committed yet. At the very best, he could have suffered for the past sins, and the present sins. But he could not have suffered for the future sins.
Because if you accepted that Jesus suffered for the Sins committed today, it then entails a completely deterministic universe where free will does not exist, where everything was already scripted and followed 100% since the dawn of man. Therefor rendering the concept of Sins completely erroneous(ed*: or obsolete); because if free will does not exist; how can someone be a sinner? For the sin to exist, there must be a good path and an evil path; free will.
How could have Jesus known that Bob Planche and Helena Quartz would commit adultery yesterday? So did he suffer for their sins? That doesn't hold up unless he knew that those 2 would sin yesterday.
Someone could also defend the position, that Jesus suffered for possible hypothetical future sins. But that doesn't hold up, not in my mind anyway.
If Jesus suffered for someone or anyone's sin: it was the sins of the past and the sins committed during his time on earth.
When his suffering ended, he stopped suffering for any past and present (at the time) sins.