No such conflict is seen between Jesus and the religious leaders. And am I suppose to believe that?
Maybe you are not understanding my comment. I said there is no record of any instance where Jesus told the Pharisees they were wrong to believe in the written scripture. Unless you can show that to not be true, then yes, you should believe that because it's true.
THINK! When "all scripture is God breathed" was written the Bible as is did not exist. How do you explain all that came after that scripture is included there? Why didn't the writer also include "scripture that will be"?
All scripture that is and will be is God-breathed. Why didn't he write that?
I think again you misunderstand what I said.
I never said that statement in 2 Timothy 4:1 implied that Paul was making reference to all New Testament books.
I said that Paul held the the Old Testament books to be God breathed scripture; and I pointed that out for the purpose of demonstrating that his view of scripture is in line with everything Jesus ever said about scripture being the Word of God in the Gospels.
Although, since we're on the subject, I will point out that it's very possible and even likely that Paul was referring to some of the New Testament books as scripture because this letter was written near the end of life after most of the New Testament books would have already been written (possibly even all of them, depending on when you think the Gospel of John and Revelation were written). Additionally, 2 Peter 3:16 refers to Paul's writings themselves as scripture; thus demonstrating that the apostalic era church recognized Christian writings as God breathed scripture.
IF Jesus had criticized the Hebrew scriptures he would have been condemned for that instead of being condemned for claiming sonship. Right? Do you know ANYTHING about psychology?
I don't see what point you are trying to make. Jesus didn't criticize scripture because He recognized it as the Word of God to us. He did claim to be the Son of God because He is.
Matthew 28:19 has made disciple the verb into disciple the noun. This is not a bad thing according to you. Why?
"to disciple someone" (verb) and "make a disciple of them" (noun) is essentially the same meaning.
Some translations do translate it as "disciple the nations" rather than "make disciples of the nations". Others translate it as simply "teach". The same message is still being conveyed.
I don't see what the problem is with that. Why do you have a problem with it if the meaning remains the same?
So you are telling me that publishing companies who print Bibles for profit are "willing vessels"? If you believe that no person has had selfish desire while handling God's word then I think there is nothing more to talk about. I agree.
You seem to be confusing two seperate issues - Bible translations vs Bible text transmission over the ages.
People who mistranslate the Bible either through negligence, ignorance, or malice have nothing to do with God's preservation of the content of the text in Greek and Hebrew down through History.
We can still go back to the Greek to decide for ourselves if it really makes any difference whether Matthew 28:19 translates disciple as a verb or noun.