but of course...jesus was jewish after all....and equating canaanites to dogs is considered neighborly?
One of the primary reasons of Jesus being sent is to fulfil the Messianic prophecies, and He had to be Jewish in order to fulfil them. And he was testing the Canaanite woman's faith.
i wouldn't call it practical reasons per se, i would call it political reasons
Perhaps, it makes little difference.
he did...quoting by leviticus.
considere the good samaritan story...
if jesus indeed meant neighbor was to mean everyone, why wasn't it a roman who helped the jew? samaritans were a part of the assembly of israel, were they not?
Simply because Jesus did not use a Roman in His story does not suggest anything. The Samaritans were arguably hated more than the Romans were. They challenged the Jews' beliefs, and said that they were wrong, believing that their own religion was "true", as they claimed that they followed the true Judaism that was around before the Babylonian exile. This kind of accusation would make Jews extremely angry, and so Samaritans were a prime example to use and show that no matter what religion, race (the Samaritans were ethnically different) or attitudes were, they were all your neighbours.
from what i gather, each gospel was written for a certain audience...
mark and matthew were for the jews, luke for the greco roman audience and john moved to the rest of the world because it was written much much later and all of jesus disciples had died before jesus was supposed to come back
Indeed. As you say, Matthew was written for a Jewish audience, and the story of the Canaanite woman is within Matthew, clearly telling Jews that the Message is for anyone and everyone.
well if you call this a test... conceding that you are no better than a dog...
compared to being a child of god...
thats pretty despicable, but thats just me
It was Jesus' test of her faith. He would not have said it if she could not take it. He was questioning her with the general Jewish attitude of the time, and testing her to see if her faith would prevail over her own personal emotions.
can you find me that same sentiment in mark or matthew?
as i mentioned before luke and john were written for a different audience, in fact it is in acts that the word christian is used for the 1st time...
paul i'm not so sure about, sometimes it's as if his teachings trump some of jesus teachings...faith vs. works for example.
Jesus says at the end of Matthew:
“All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me. 19 Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptising them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, 20 and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you. And surely I am with you always, to the very end of the age.”
Jesus Himself makes clear that His message is for everyone. Why should only Jews be their neighbours, when Jesus' message and salvation is for everyone, and is made clear here? That would not make sense.
yes everyone is our neighbor, we in our current society have come to that understanding, but when in leviticus it was tribes against tribes...
Yes, but Jesus used it to represent the entirety of the earth. He makes it clear at the end of Matthew for all of the nations to be saved. Why would he specify that among those who can be saved (everyone), only the Jews should be treated as equals? It does not suggest this anywhere.
isn't it interesting that god commands in lev 19
16 “‘Do not go about spreading slander among your people.
“‘Do not do anything that endangers your neighbor’s life. I am the LORD.
17 “‘Do not hate a fellow Israelite in your heart. Rebuke your neighbor frankly so you will not share in their guilt.
18 “‘Do not seek revenge or bear a grudge against anyone among your people, but love your neighbor as yourself. I am the LORD.
These quotes show what was applicable to the Israelites at the time. Before Jesus' resurrection, the Jews were God's chosen people. Abraham was the only one in the world who kept to God's teachings, and so his descendants were blessed. God then sent his Son, Jesus, to bring the whole world back into a good relationship with God, rather than just the Jews.
but then tells them to slaughter innocent women and little boys while keeping virgin girls alive for the sake of rape? (numbers 31)
in that case, god' has some pretty funny ideas about what neighbor means...
Personally, I feel that these parts were Jewish justification for their deeds, by pinning the blame on God and saying that He told them to do it. Other Christians, however, would say that God ordered the slaughter of the children, because they would grow up to be adherents to an evil religion (which advocated human sacrifice), and so by killing them at this stage they could find entry into heaven. Personally, I'm not sure about that explanation though. Another explanation is that God advocated this to happen in order to prevent even greater evil from happening. He knows all, and knows what atrocities would happen in the future if they had been left alive. God also wanted to keep the Messianic line intact. But yeah, I'm not too sure myself. My response is that either it is Jewish justification, or that simply God is omniscient, and so whatever he advocates in the long run is always good, and that we simply cannot understand Him or what consequences the Jews may have faced if they had not carried out the slaughter.