I brought up the "babies" question originally, and "stones" got added in later. I think that we violently agree that calling babies and stones atheists is absurd. That makes it reasonable in this debate, because reductio ad absurdum is a reasonable method to use in order to disprove a claim.
The point is it doesn't destroy any arguments. According to the definition "a person without a belief in God", a baby is an atheist. Including a tree in a discussion of the fastest living things isn't helpful, but that doesn't negate the fact that a tree is a living thing.
Fair enough, but I'm the only one of us two that knows something about the community of lexicographers and lexicologists, since I belong to that community.
Ah, so, because you belong to that community, you must be the only one of the two of us who knows anything about it? That's faulty reasoning. It's also an appeal to authority. In any case, I got my degree in linguistics, so while you might be a current part of that particular community, you're wrong to assume I don't know anything about it.
Mball, I am getting the strong impression that you are in argumentum ad nauseam mode here. You used the parts of the word (i.e. its morphology) to make a claim. I pointed out that that is a classic etymological fallacy and gave you the Wikipedia definition to underscore my point. Your reaction was to ignore what I said and repeat the fallacy.
My reaction was to point out how your accusation is incorrect. Sure, we can use words to mean things other than their original meanings. However, in this case we don't. We use theism to mean "belief in God". Do you agree with that? Do you agree that a theist is a person who believes in God? So, then an a-theist would be someone who doesn't believe in God. That includes all people who answer no to the question "Do you believe in God?".
And I explained why the linguistic argument is a fallacy--one that you apparently have never heard of before and still do not buy off on. Would you like to take that position explicitly? Do you deny that such arguments qualify as etymological fallacies? Do you want to deny that your particular argument qualifies as such?
What I'm saying is that it's an incorrect accusation here. In this case, we use the words as their morphemes suggest. We use theism to mean "belief in God" just as would be suggested by the use of the word it comes from, theos.
Argumentum ad nauseam. You agree that I said what I said. Then you make a claim that a false entailment is relevant and that it proves your point, even though I never used the false entailment in this discussion and agree with you that it is a false entailment.
Huh? What you said is true, but it's also irrelevant. The relevant way to say it is that the question "Do you believe in God?" does not entail the question "Does God exist?". Mentioning that the other way around works doesn't add anything at all to the discussion, except confusion.