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Bible Fails

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
I would assume, just the same, that if there's documents circulating around which are
attributed to Matthew then it's reasonably fair to say "This is the Gospel according to
Matthew" on the basis of a traditional connection with this man.
They weren’t attributed to Matthew”until much later.
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
When quite a few posters observe the same problem it is time to consider that it may be you with the problem.
Not really. Those who claim not to believe God do not know God's Word yet they still believing the same things do not mean they are right and others are wrong. It simply means they have the same belief (faith) :)
 
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sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
Indeed. It is based on the scriptures. Christians are to point people to the Word of God not away from it. Though it seems you do not understand this :)
You just said you didn’t judge. Now you’re saying that you “indeed” did. And it’s not “based on the scriptures.” It’s based on your interpretation of the scriptures. So there is evidence of falsehood in your posts on at least two counts. What kind of fruit is that? Are these posts of yours trying to lead people away from truth? And, since God is truth, what does that say about leading people away from God? is that some thing Christians do, as you posit? Or is it something “Christians” do, as you posit? This appears to be fairly self-incriminating on your part.
 

Heyo

Veteran Member
That could be true, at least for "equality."
Equality is not a word found in the bible (I haven't checked)
because the concept is alien - in one sense.
In one sense there's "equality" because of the bible's universalism.
That is, we are all equal to God.
The whole OT is based on inequality with the Israelites being "The chosen People".
Even in the NT, Jesus only changes his mind after the resurrection that he is the savior to all mankind and not only Israel.
 

PruePhillip

Well-Known Member
They weren’t attributed to Matthew”until much later.

Sure, but how much later we don't know.
I don't think they pulled names out of thin air.
There was most likely traditions of the names.
John's Gospel for instance bears a striking
resemblance to John's Epistles and the story
of John within the Gospels.
 
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3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
You just said you didn’t judge. Now you’re saying that you “indeed” did. And it’s not “based on the scriptures.” It’s based on your interpretation of the scriptures. So there is evidence of falsehood in your posts on at least two counts. What kind of fruit is that? Are these posts of yours trying to lead people away from truth? And, since God is truth, what does that say about leading people away from God? is that some thing Christians do, as you posit? Or is it something “Christians” do, as you posit? This appears to be fairly self-incriminating on your part.

Nonsense, but it is correct I do not judge you or anyone here. As posted in the post you are quoting from, it is the Word of God that is our Judge. Now if God's Word says we should do something and we do not do it or we do the opposite how do we know if we have done what God says? - Yep through what God says - this is the fruit being referred to in MATTHEW 7:15-26
 
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PruePhillip

Well-Known Member
The whole OT is based on inequality with the Israelites being "The chosen People".
Even in the NT, Jesus only changes his mind after the resurrection that he is the savior to all mankind and not only Israel.

Yes and no.
Israel is SYMOBLICALLY the "chosen people" but others became a part of
Israel and the chosen as well. Moses married outside of the Jews, and Jesus
genealogy has quite a few Gentiles. Jesus enraged the Jews by saying that
only two people were helped in the days of Elias, both were Gentiles.

David, Isaiah, Zechariah, Daniel and many others spoke of the Messiah as
coming to his own people, but that His message will go out into all the world.
Jesus came "only" to his own people - that was His mission. Though we read
of quite a few Gentiles receiving that message. But as even Jacob mentioned,
ca 2000 BC, with the end of Israel comes the Messiah and he will be believed
upon by all the world.
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
Sure, but how much later we don't know.
I don't think they pulled names out of thin air.
There was most likely traditions of the names.
John's Gospel for instance bears a striking
resemblance to John's Epistles and the story
of John within the Gospels.
Doesn’t matter. they aren’t autographed and that’s enough to cast don’t on any “certainty” based on heresay.
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
Nonsense, but it is correct I do not judge you or anyone here. As posted in the post you are quoting from, it is the Word of God that is our Judge. You do not understand that do you. Now if God's Word says we should do something and we do not do it or we do the opposite how do we know if we have done what God says? - Yep through what God says we should do.
You finished the post by saying “shameful.” That is a judgment on your part. Might as well be honest and call it what it is. You are now being judged by the same judgement with which you judged someone else. Just as the Bible says.
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
You finished the post by saying “shameful.” That is a judgment on your part. Might as well be honest and call it what it is. You are now being judged by the same judgement with which you judged someone else. Just as the Bible says.

Not really. Someone professing to be Christian and not doing "christian" things is in deed shameful. This is what the scriptures teach. It is not my teaching or judgement but that of the scriptures or righteous judgment. Do you know what righteous judgment is *JOHN 7:24? - It is making judgments according to the Word of God which will be our judge come judgment day *JOHN 12:47-48. We are not to judge according to outward appearance but righteous judgement which is based on the scriptures.
 
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Subduction Zone

Veteran Member
Not really it only shows the context you left out of your interpretation of the scriptures by posting scripture around and after the single scripture you cherry picked out of context to show correct meaning and application. Context matters and you provided none leading you to an incorrect interpretation of the scripture you posted. Seems a lot of your friends do the same because you neither know God or his Word :)
There was no context left out. That was your false narrative. You made a false claim about others. You could not deal with the verse that went above and beyond the context.

Face it you got spanked again.
 

Subduction Zone

Veteran Member
Not really it only shows the context you left out of your interpretation of the scriptures by posting scripture around and after the single scripture you cherry picked out of context to show correct meaning and application. Context matters and you provided none leading you to an incorrect interpretation of the scripture you posted. Seems a lot of your friends do the same because you neither know God or his Word :)
Actually we tend to have superior reading comprehension. I still remember how you did not understand how the dictionary definition that you supplied refuted your claim.

The problem may be the particular sect of Christianity that you follow. Would you care to tell us which one?
 

Subduction Zone

Veteran Member
Not really. You are not my Judge. God's Word is which is something you do not know because you do not know God :)

It is not judgement to demonstrate how you could not follow your own Bible. That was all that was done. No one is saying "You are going to Hell for this!"
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
There was no context left out. That was your false narrative. You made a false claim about others. You could not deal with the verse that went above and beyond the context. Face it you got spanked again.

Sure there was. You cherry picked a scripture taken out of context in Corinthians 7 and tried to put an interpretation on it that it was not saying in relation to sex. I simply added all the context back in showing it was talking about sex in relation to fornication (unlawful sex outside of marriage). Adding the context back showed that your application to all sex was faulty as Paul went on to show that sex within marriage was ok. Context matters my friend and you did not provide any. This was your mistake. Seems the sad thing is you are the one who got spanked but you do not even know it :)
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
Actually we tend to have superior reading comprehension. I still remember how you did not understand how the dictionary definition that you supplied refuted your claim. The problem may be the particular sect of Christianity that you follow. Would you care to tell us which one?

Not really I thought it was funny that I posted the Oxford Dictionaries definition of Atheism which uses the same definition of many dictionaries and you trying to argue it was not correct. Then again you have your faith and I have mine I guess :)
 
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