The second 'prominent prophet' solution also has issues: "Yet other interpreters are far from convinced with this approach. Morison describes Lightfoot’s view as “too evidently ingenious, and hyper-ingenious,—far-fetched.”
42 Furthermore, both Toy and Ridderbos bring attention to the fact that “such a mode of citation is unexampled.”
43 D. A. Carson calls this explanation a “highly improbable ‘solution’…[because] it is not at all certain that Jeremiah was first in Matthew’s day.”
44 In other words, too much stock is given to Jewish documents written approximately 500 years after Matthew’s Gospel. And even if weight is given to the historical roots of this rabbinical literature, it should be noted that Jeremiah is not always listed first; in fact, Isaiah heads up the list twice as often.
45 Michael Knowles further points out that “since the one other ascription of a formula quotation to ‘Jeremiah’ (in 2:17-18) is clearly to the canonical work of the prophet, a more general reference here seems highly improbable.”
46 And lastly, if the mention of Jeremiah is truly equivalent to writing “in the prophets,” we should expect Jeremiah to be cited liberally throughout the whole of the New Testament when any passage from the prophets is quoted, which of course, is not the case.
47" From 'Managing Over-Cites'
Managing “Over-Cites”: Learning from Evangelical Treatments of Faulty New Testament Citations of the Old Testament | Bible.org I really find it difficult to accept that someone without a prior commitment to inerrency would favour either/both of these proposed solutions over the much simpler and direct explanation that figures as diverse as Augustine, Barclay and Ehrman accept, which is that Matthew just made a mistake.