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Bible Prophecy as Evidence of a bible writers trustworthiness

So, whaddya think? Will he try to pick apart the word "advocate", or will he will he try to pretend that indentured servitude is the only type of slaver that God condoned in the Bible?
Was there slavery in the Garden of Eden before the fall of man, you know, before Adam and Eve believed the Serpent instead of God their Creator? No
 

ppp

Well-Known Member
So, whaddya think? Will he try to pick apart the word "advocate", or will he will he try to pretend that indentured servitude is the only type of slaver that God condoned in the Bible?

Was there slavery in the Garden of Eden before the fall of man, you know, before Adam and Eve believed the Serpent instead of God their Creator? No

No. What does that have to do with the fact that God condones slavery in the Bible?
 
No. What does that have to do with the fact that God condones slavery in the Bible?
It means when God allows things because of man’s weakness doesn’t mean He advocates or condones them, for example in marriage:
“The Pharisees came and asked Him, “Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife?” testing Him. And He answered and said to them, “What did Moses command you?” They said, “Moses permitted a man to write a certificate of divorce, and to dismiss her.” And Jesus answered and said to them, “Because of the hardness of your heart he wrote you this precept. But from the beginning of the creation, God ‘made them male and female.’ ‘For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’; so then they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate.””
‭‭Mark‬ ‭10:2-9‬ ‭NKJV‬‬
 

Redemptionsong

Well-Known Member
You've stated that "Scripture teaches that if you continue to show scepticism, the only evidence you'll witness is the evidence of judgement.'
Skepticism is the act of doubting or questioning something.
So you can't use your reason to doubt and question the teachings of Scripture. You have to just believe them or "the only evidence you'll witness is the evidence of judgment," according to you.


And we're right back where we started.
Faith is the excuse people give for believing when they don't have evidence.
And as you say, if we show skepticism, the only evidence we get is "evidence of judgment."
In Acts 18:24-28 we have the account of a man by the name of Apollos. Verse 18 says, 'And a certain Jew named Apollos, born at Alexandria, an eloquent man, and mighty in the scriptures, came to Ephesus.' In verse 28, it goes on to say, 'For he mightily convinced the Jews, and that publickly, shewing by the scriptures that Jesus was Christ.'

The only scriptures available to Apollos were the scriptures of the OT. Yet, using these alone he was able to show that Jesus was the Anointed One. This suggests that there was evidence in the OT, and this evidence must have been contained within the Law, the Prophets and the Writings (as Jesus himself claimed. Luke 24:27).
 

SkepticThinker

Veteran Member
How does that contradict my view? It strengthens my view, a lot of people care and want to do the right thing but don’t , why not?
If everyone is as evil as you say they are, why did we create laws in the first place then?
It seems to me that evil people wouldn't be interested in such things.
 
If everyone is as evil as you say they are, why did we create laws in the first place then?
It seems to me that evil people wouldn't be interested in such things.
I said man is fallen, but you can have the last word because it’s about prophecy and have gotten off track on that part.
 

SkepticThinker

Veteran Member
In Acts 18:24-28 we have the account of a man by the name of Apollos. Verse 18 says, 'And a certain Jew named Apollos, born at Alexandria, an eloquent man, and mighty in the scriptures, came to Ephesus.' In verse 28, it goes on to say, 'For he mightily convinced the Jews, and that publickly, shewing by the scriptures that Jesus was Christ.'

The only scriptures available to Apollos were the scriptures of the OT. Yet, using these alone he was able to show that Jesus was the Anointed One. This suggests that there was evidence in the OT, and this evidence must have been contained within the Law, the Prophets and the Writings (as Jesus himself claimed. Luke 24:27).
What does this have to do with what I said?
 

SkepticThinker

Veteran Member
Looks like it was neither brother:cool:
It means when God allows things because of man’s weakness doesn’t mean He advocates or condones them, for example in marriage:
“The Pharisees came and asked Him, “Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife?” testing Him. And He answered and said to them, “What did Moses command you?” They said, “Moses permitted a man to write a certificate of divorce, and to dismiss her.” And Jesus answered and said to them, “Because of the hardness of your heart he wrote you this precept. But from the beginning of the creation, God ‘made them male and female.’ ‘For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’; so then they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate.””
‭‭Mark‬ ‭10:2-9‬ ‭NKJV‬‬

;)
 
It means when God allows things because of man’s weakness doesn’t mean He advocates or condones them, for example in marriage:
“The Pharisees came and asked Him, “Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife?” testing Him. And He answered and said to them, “What did Moses command you?” They said, “Moses permitted a man to write a certificate of divorce, and to dismiss her.” And Jesus answered and said to them, “Because of the hardness of your heart he wrote you this precept. But from the beginning of the creation, God ‘made them male and female.’ ‘For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’; so then they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate.””
‭‭Mark‬ ‭10:2-9‬ ‭NKJV‬‬

;)
Did I pick apart the word? Or change any meaning of slavery, although there are different meanings and forms of slavery in the Bible, No I did not.
 
It directly contradicts your claim you've made in this thread.
You don't get to just dump it off on the Bible now. That's a cop out.
How so? Make a different thread and address these topics and will join in, but it’s gone on too long and gotten off the topic of prophecy. Now we are getting into slavery and other things so yeah, moving on:)
 

SkepticThinker

Veteran Member
Did I pick apart the word? Or change any meaning of slavery, although there are different meanings and forms of slavery in the Bible, No I did not.
You appear to be trying to say that God advocating for slavery in the Bible isn't really God advocating for slavery in the Bible.
Why you quoted something about divorce and not slavery is perplexing.
 
You appear to be trying to say that God advocating for slavery in the Bible isn't really God advocating for slavery in the Bible.
Why you quoted something about divorce and not slavery is perplexing.
And to go on explaining that the test of the day on this thread isn’t happening so yeah, you got the last word and back to prophesy.
 
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