1) It appeared that you were being argumentative as well. But if it was a question, the conversation in Romans 3 was about circumcision and if was necessary for converts to Christianity to undergo the process. Paul was arguing that it was not necessary and he did so by pointing out that some Jews did not follow the law. And even though some did not follow the law God was still faithful to the Jewish people. In fact, and this was the verse that was abused, even if every Jew was not circumcised God would still have been faithful the Jews. That is the meaning of:
"3 What if some were unfaithful? Will their unfaithfulness nullify God’s faithfulness? 4 Not at all! Let God be true, and every human being a liar. As it is written:
“So that you may be proved right when you speak
and prevail when you judge.”[
a]"
It sounds a bit awkward, but it seems to be saying that a Jew could pull it out to show that he was faithful. But more important was the "So what if some were unfaithful" In verse 1 it does mention that the Jews were trusted with the "word of God" but that was just a side point.
At this point it seems that he might be arguing for circumcision but he goes on to show that no one is without fault and argues that circumcision was for the Jews and not the gentiles. In other words, gentiles could become Christians. The Jews had a both a benefit from God and a duty to him.:
God’s Faithfulness - What advantage, then, is there in being a Jew, or what value is there in circumcision? Much in every way! First of all, the Jews have been entrusted with the very words of God. What if some were unfaithful? Will their unfaithfulness nullify God’s faithfulness? Not at all...
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