Do you have any substantive evidence that is the case? Do you say that only because you disagree with their conclusions?
Possibly I have substantive evidence. I was given a blog the other day which suggested that it was fine to use prophecy to date the writing of the gospels and so the gospels were written probably post 70AD because of the Temple destruction prophecy.
He said that he wasn't going to do that however and instead would see where he ended up without doing that.
Greetings all! Alas, I am underway with my new blog in which I will explore a variety of topics related to Biblical studies, paying particular attention to the New Testament and other early Christi…
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He claims to have ended up post 70AD using various approaches but the way he interpreted comments by the church fathers and his lack of knowledge of Apostolic Fathers use of the gospels in their writings, and what I see as his lack of knowledge of Roman history discredited what he said imo.
So imo he was not able to get to post 70AD without the presumption of the prophecy being written post 70AD.
He wanted the earliest use of the gospel material by the church fathers to be 150AD, however it was a lot earlier than that.
He said that the first universal census of the Roman Empire was in 74AD and so Luke had to have written after that date since he mentions a universal roman census.
I don't know if that makes sense but also for years now I have read various historians and even skeptics say that Rome was doing censuses since around the start of the first century at least.
He also quotes a couple of church fathers relating to the gospel of Mark and when it was written. He quoted Irenaeus of Lyons:
“…Peter and Paul were preaching at Rome, and laying the foundations of the Church. After their demise, Mark, the disciple and interpreter of Peter, did also hand down to us in writing what had been preached by Peter.” (Against Heresies III.1)
and claims this means that Mark wrote his gospel after Peter and Paul died, which he says was under Nero's persecution- 67,68 AD. so the Markan gospel cannot have been written before 70 AD.
This quote of Iranaeus however does not say that Mark wrote after Peter and Paul died, it says that pretty much that the gospel was put out, published, after that.
Luke could have been getting information from Mark for years before Mark was finished and it could have been just sitting waiting for the right time to publish, when Peter died.
Anyway, just a few thoughts on how this guy (Doston Jones) wants to date the synoptic gospels to after 70AD without referring to the prophecy.
As I said, he did not succeed and he also did suggest that it was appropriate to use the prophecy of the temple destruction and mention of the Jewish Roman war as if it was an after the event prophecy, otherwise historians would be giving the Bible special pleading, as they use prophecy like that with other old documents.
So prophecy is used with old documents and to date the gospels and the prophecy is seen as having been written after the events.
This is how people on this forum, who are into critical thinking and scientific thinking, say that prophecy should be used, and they also say that this is treating the prophecy with neutrality.