Non trinitarian Translations of John 1:1
Yes, there is no indefinite article in Greek. But how we read it in English is different. Are you aware that there is a definite article almost every time before Theon or Theos in all other places? Do you know what Anarthrous means? There is a definite article however in 1:1b, and "Calwell's rule" is not really a rule but an opinion and one that has been quietly laid to rest by the recent Christian community once the scholars exposed all the times it doesn't apply. Basically Calwell's "rule" was aimed squarely at John 1:1c, and ended up failing on every occasion where it was used elsewhere, thus the "rule" does not apply.
You do not understand what Polytheism actually is. Who is the "god of this age" in 2 Corinthians 4:4? Polytheism is the placing of multiple gods as the ultimate god.
The word "god" is used for Angels. What does John 10:34-35 say? Are you disagreeing with Jesus when he says that the Israelites themselves are called "gods"? What then of the Angels who are called "Heavenly Beings" and "Sons of G-d"? The word "god" means Angels in Psalms 136:2 and Psalms 86:1. This does not mean they are HIGHER than G-d the
"god of the gods".
There is no god higher than god, that is the concept. Serving any god other than the Most high god (as he is called the "
Most high god" for a reason) lies in the sin.
Not the acceptance of the existence of beings known as "Elohim".
Do you think the NLT's translation of 2 Cor 4:4 is incorrect?
The word "god" is the problem, and understanding its use as a nominative or possessive becomes tricky for those who don't understand what "Monotheism" actually means.
Judaism, as many schoalrs admit, is more HENOtheistic than Monotheistic. We accept the EXISTENCE of other beings called "gods", just as Paul says there are beings called "gods and lords", but they are not THE god and lord, which is what the Definite article is used for in most cases. (There are exceptions). This shows up in Hebrew at times with "Ha" such as "Elohei ha-elohim" where unlike the Greek, it is used to signify the actual plural (as opposed to the majestic plural singular use of Elohim).
And going by the Syriac Pe****ta, 1:1c uses "Eloah" which is the Singular, but "Elohim" in 1:1b.
Also, it helps to have a working understanding of Philo's "Logos Theology" which every Anatolian Jew back in the day was well familar with. "Firstborn among Creation".