if you call any of that evidence its really a pathetic attempt.
Sorry to say, but if you feel his attempt is pathetic, what you gave is no less pathetic.
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if you call any of that evidence its really a pathetic attempt.
Does anyone here have any idea where the Holy Ghost (the third part of god) is in the vision portrayed in Revelation?Yes, as man (His human nature).
Yet He is in the center of The Throne (read Revelation 7)
Does anyone here have any idea where the Holy Ghost (the third part of god) is in the vision portrayed in Revelation?
And the ascended Jesus still has His human nature.
Matthew 16:27
For the Son of Man is going to come in his Father's glory with his angels, and then he will reward each person according to what he has done.
Revelation 1:13
and among the lampstands was someone "like a son of man," dressed in a robe reaching down to his feet and with a golden sash around his chest.
The words are clear.
You choose to find them not good enough.
He is at the center of the throne. I am not saying He is the Father. I am saying He is God.
Son of man refers to His human nature.And in none of this do we find any indication he is in a human state. Furthermore the biblical Yeshua is clear at Rev. 3:12 that he has a god.....
Which is why I gave you Rev 3:12 as well as chapter 4 and 5.
Again words are clear. There is only one throne in chapter 7. It says "The Throne", obviously referring to the one previously mentioned in the chapter. And the Lamb is at its center.I chose nothing. These are your scriptures and what they reveal is the exact opposite to what you believe. You keep harping on chapter 7 all the while ignoring that there are multiple thrones mentioned...
And your verse is poorly translated. The word ( ἀνά ) does not mean ("center") the Greek word (ἀνά means (among, between or by). Other areas where that word is used is never translated as "center". Without having a basic familiarity of the Greek language you're bound to believe almost anything you read.
ἀνὰana303PREPmidstKing James Bible
For the Lamb which is in the midst of the throne shall feed them, and shall lead them unto living fountains of waters: and God shall wipe away all tears from their eyes.
, this is proven by the Syriac Pe****ta useing "Eloah" for 1:1c and "Elohim" for 1:1b."And a god was the word"
By understanding the following verses correctly, one can see that according to the Bible, Jesus is God who created everything:
John 1 says:
In the beginning was the Word,(Jesus) and the Word was with God, and the Word (Jesus) was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by him (Jesus); and without him was not any thing made that was made.
In Genesis 1:1 it says:
In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth.
Colossians 1:16-17 says:
For by him (Jesus) were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him: And he is before all things, and by him all things consist.
There are 24 thrones in Chapter 4 and 11, and multiple thrones in Chapter 20...
By understanding the following verses correctly, one can see that according to the Bible, Jesus is God who created everything:
John 1 says:
In the beginning was the Word,(Jesus) and the Word was with God, and the Word (Jesus) was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by him (Jesus); and without him was not any thing made that was made.
In Genesis 1:1 it says:
In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth.
Colossians 1:16-17 says:
For by him (Jesus) were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him: And he is before all things, and by him all things consist.
You can take your belief from whoever you want.There's no twisting in pointing out Philo's "Logos Theology", that Wisdom was the First Created Being, and that John 1:1c should read "And a god was the word".
There MAY be twisting in quoting Colossians 1:16-17 without 1:15.
You can take your belief from whoever you want.
I take mine from the bible.
Jesus, the Word, became flesh (John 1:1,14), he was begotten not made.Colossians 1:15 Firstborn Among Creation. And the word "Prototokos" is used specifically for "Begotten" in every other time its used. The intended audience of these epistles likely clearly understood the connection between "Firstborn among Creation" and the "Creator of all things" since this was standard Anatolian Jewish theology of the day.
Once again, most Anatolian Jews were well familiar with Philo's "Logos" Theology which says that the Highest Archangel was the Instrument and Prototype of which all Creation was made. The foreman of the Angels. Some of the early Midrash says the Angels were created on the Second day. Proverbs clearly says that Wisdom was the "First created thing" and this is exactly what the Logos Theology says, that Wisdom was the first personified created being and the instrument of which all things were made. If anything, the later "Gnostic" concept of the Demiurge may have been based on this, but upside-down.
By understanding the verses correctly, we see that Yashua was the Incarnation of the Highest angel.
And John 1:1c, read correctly, will read, this is proven by the Syriac Pe****ta useing "Eloah" for 1:1c and "Elohim" for 1:1b.
Non trinitarian Translations of John 1:1
Like I said:I've seen the "pre-eminence" argument many times, regardless, "Firstborn" implies pre-eminence in the sense of an "heir" or "Son" no matter what. If David was "Firstborn" to G-d, he was still a separate being. "Firstborn among Creation" means "The pre-eminent created being among creation".
However, one cannot fully compare Hebrew to Greek words as well. The context of Colossians 1 altogether.
G-d cannot be the "Firstborn" in such a sense, even metaphorical, if he is the Creator and the Initiator. It would have to be in the context of "Appointed", as in a being other than him made him the "Firstborn".
Yes, THE Throne is different than the other thrones, but that doesn't change the part about "Center of" or "midst". If Jesus is in the "Midst", that changes the context too even if there's only one throne.
Telling me that my words mean nothing does absolutely nothing to actually discredit what I said about the deliberate mistranslating of "Midst" as "center of". One means "nearby" the other doesn't. Telling me that this is making up my own doctrine would be accurate if I was the first person to state this fact.
If it means "In the center of", please show another use in the text where it has the same meaning where it would imply "in the center of" as opposed to "nearby". Otherwise, kindly admit that the word "Center of" is a sub-translation of "In the midst of/nearby".
GNT Concordance: ??? (ana) ? 13 Occurrences Here you go, prove your case that it means "Center of" in the sense of "On" as opposed to "Near" or "Among". Like "I was in the midst of the crowd" or "I was in the midst of a rock star".
The words are clear for you to see, whether you particularly accept it or not is not my concern. The issue is whether Jesus was "In the center of" or "In the midst of". If you think my words mean nothing, why don't you disprove the Strong's entry I used instead of telling me that I'm making it up. That would be the honorable way to try to disprove it.