You've refuted nothing...
I replied to and refuted the view that you gave with proofs not only from references but from the bible, and you had no reply.
All what you could do was comment on the Gospel of John itself...
You're fond of presenting Pe****a script and when I presented it and how it is actually translated by multiple translators you then you say what's important is the coptic. I have a few coptic translations by linguist that do not render it as trinitarians suggest it should be.
The Pe****ta again!
Can you even read Aramaic?
Here again:
Younan's Interlinear has this note on John 8:58:
See note on verse 13 (24 in English translations).
The idiom is present here in the English as well.
The note on verse 13: In Semitic thought, the phrase ‘Ena-na’ (I am)
conveys a thought of eternal existence reserved only for God. This naturally leads to the following question in verse 14 (25).
They only used past tense to fit "before Abraham was", which I proved wrong using Psalms 90:2.
But since you insist on using the Pe****ta, take this:
Luke 2:11
Today in the town of David a Savior has been born to you; he is Christ the
Lord
ܐܬܝܠܕ ܠܟܘܢ ܓܝܪ ܝܘܡܢܐ ܦܪܘܩܐ ܕܐܝܬܘܗܝ
ܡܪܝܐ ܡܫܝܚܐ ܒܡܕܝܢܬܗ ܕܕܘܝܕ
ܡܪܝܐ means the LORD, the exclusive translation of YHVA in the Pe****ta.
Even Younan's interlinear renders it "the LORD" (all capitals)
Aramaic Bible in Plain English:
“For today, The Savior has been born to you, who is
THE LORD JEHOVAH The Messiah, in the city of David.”
For the coptic, it's definitely present, no doubt. I gave Horner's translation and I could give dictionary definitions of the words (I know Coptic too).
But probably that's all what you can do. Attacking translations, scholars, even the Gospel itself...
Your final resort when you have nothing left.
I already commented on that and you had no reply.