Francine
Well-Known Member
Was Muhammad the Seal of the Prophets?
Save the Whales, club a Seal instead!
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Was Muhammad the Seal of the Prophets?
Of course, if by prophet you mean another messenger of God who will come to preach to mankind about another way of life.
It's my evil twin.Doctor Evil, is that you?
Regards,
Scott
Ummm...okay...Yes, that's what I meant.
But I have to admit I'm being mischievious here.
Divide and conquer I always say.Protector,
She's draggin red herrings across our scent trail. Next she'll try sprinkling black pepper to misdirect us.
She probably does own a bald cat and lurk under a volcano.
Regards,
Scott
Ummm...okay...
Well anyways yes he is the last prophet.
The Jews understood him to equate himself with God, and they said so in John 10:33:
"The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God."
SO you have exposed THEM charging him with making himself to be God. It isn't Yeshua here saying he is God or in some way confirming what they assumed.
No he wasn't. Where in the Bible does it explicitly say that?
doppelgänger;1050030 said:BTW, for the record, it makes no difference to me what the authors of the various stories about "Jesus" put in their dialogue . . . and Jesus claiming to be one with "God" is entirely in keeping with other aspects of the Gospel of John (not to mention pretty much any other culture's version of mysticism). I don't think it's correct to say that Jesus's reference to being the "son of god" in Luke 22 is the same as saying he is God. And it's almost certainly incorrect to suggest that the usage in Luke 22 should be taken any differently than the use of that phrase elsewhere (like Romans 8) based on the common practice of capitalizing the phrase "Son of God" in English translations, because it simply is not capitalized in the Greek manuscripts the translators are working with. That it gets capitalized in Luke and not in Romans is just a symptom of the translators' theological bias.
Since I wasn't there, I need to go by the eyewitnesses who were there and heard Jesus spoke. They seemed to hear him say he was equal to God, and Jesus didn't do much to disabuse them of that notion if he perceived that he was misunderstood.
Please show me verses that implicitly speak about trinity.NOW...NOW.... You know trinitarians will never be able to find an "explicit" statement......but what they will try to feed you is is an "Implicit" statement...and this is in striking contrast as to how God reveals himself in the OT.
This is a very important passage to my understanding of John (including John 1:1). Those who have the Spirit are "God." This is why Jesus says "I and the Father are one." This is almost always taken as meaning that only Jesus is "one with the Father," but the text of John 10 has Jesus clearly explaining that what he means is that anyone who has the Spirit of God (or "to whom the Word of God came") is "God." So those who grasp the power of creation of their divine Logos are God in the flesh. The story that follows is an metaphor of what it means to be the Word in the flesh for those who enter into this mystery.John 10:34-39
Jesus replied, "It is written in your own law that God said to certain leaders of the people, `I say, you are gods!
So by being a son (or daughter) of "God," I become one with the Father in the same way Jesus claimed to be one with the Father - when the word of God comes to me.33"We are not stoning you for any of these," replied the Jews, "but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God."
34Jesus answered them, "Is it not written in your Law, 'I have said you are gods'[e]? 35If he called them 'gods,' to whom the word of God came—and the Scripture cannot be broken— 36what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, 'I am God's Son'? 37Do not believe me unless I do what my Father does. 38But if I do it, even though you do not believe me, believe the miracles, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father." 39Again they tried to seize him, but he escaped their grasp.
Please show me verses that implicitly speak about trinity.
doppelgänger;1050486 said:This is a very important passage to my understanding of John (including John 1:1). Those who have the Spirit are "God." This is why Jesus says "I and the Father are one." This is almost always taken as meaning that only Jesus is "one with the Father," but the text of John 10 has Jesus clearly explaining that what he means is that anyone who has the Spirit of God (or "to whom the Word of God came") is "God." So those who grasp the power of creation of their divine Logos are God in the flesh. The story that follows is an metaphor of what it means to be the Word in the flesh for those who enter into this mystery.
doppelgänger;1050486 said:So by being a son (or daughter) of "God," I become one with the Father in the same way Jesus claimed to be one with the Father - when the word of God comes to me.
Praise be to the One God! By the way brother, what religion are you?It's of no importance to me because I agree with you. John 8:58 is one of them even though that is a misunderstanding of the greek words being used "ego eimi" (I existed). Muffled listed plenty of what he believes is Yeshua claiming to be God at the beginning of this thread http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/religious-debates/61330-did-jesus-say-he-god.html
I have dealt with all of those quotes and at a glance you're left wondering why he posted them when clearly most of those quotes Yeshua gives praise to his god. You are coming in late so you may not be aware that originally the thread was Call "Is Jesus God in the flesh"....as you can see the title has changed but the answer to either question remains to be NO!...Yeshua was not God in the flesh nor did he say he was God.
Praise be to the One God! By the way brother, what religion are you?
One question. If jesus was God, How can he be the son of God?