In John 8:24 "He" is not part of the original statement.
Even so. It means nothing considering I don't even think I mentioned any of the bibles that contain the [he] in brackets. Even though the "He" is not in the verse the same rendering is repeated at verse 8:28 When he says (I am) but notice he says his Father (everyone's god) "sent" him. Truth be told the meaning of verse 24 is in verses 12 and 23. The biblical Yeshua gave testimony of behalf of himself saying (he was the light of the world who was from above). His response in verse 24 is because they didn't believe him and mocked what he was saying. See, this is what I mean by understanding the story's context instead of picking bits to make it say something it isn't.
Jesus' words were not constucted normally but were influenced by OT Heb. usage. It is an absolute usage meaning, "I AM" and has immense theological significance. the reference may be to both Ex 3:14 where the Lord declared His name as "I AM" and to Is. 40-55 where the phase "I am" occurs repeatedly ( esp. 43:10,13,25 ) In this Jesus referred to Himself as God (Yahweh- the Lord) of the OT, and directly claimed full deity for Himself. [ John Macarthur ]
It is not....NOT AT ALL. All the biblical Yeshua was saying was that he existed in heaven before Abraham came into being. This is shown in a couple other places in the very same book of John. The biblical Yeshua existed in heaven with his god and possesed his own will, was sent to earth by his god with a task to do and completes that task. We know he existed (WITH) his god in heaven because in his prayer to his god he says so. And after his ascension we find the biblical Yeshua (The Lamb) back in heave amongst "God's" creation and in the midst of "God"...but not as "God" but completely separate.
Furthermore chapter 8 is climaxed by Jesus saying, "most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM." (John 8:58) Is that not clear enough? It was for the Jews there who understood the OT scriptures. Because they then took up stones to kill Jesus. (v.59)
I just answered that and it's not the first time in this thread that I've addressed it. The biblical Yeshua, in John 8:58, says (I am). In fact he says it a few times in that chapter, again, depending on context. He said it so much that no one sought to kill him until he "appeared" to be disrespecting Abraham. The whole chapter absolutely has nothing in relation to Ex. 3:14. In your English translated versions you have harped on the words "I am". All that (I am), in this context, means is (I exist or I existed).
ergo - (I, me, my)
eimi - (To, to happen, to exist, to be present)
'Yeshua said to them, truly, truly, I say to you, Before Abraham came into existence, I existed.'
That's all it says.....no more...no less...
Unless you get a kick out of reading something that just isn't there......